Oncology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 04:17 Page 12 of 53 Attempt #1935 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 56 / 264 Not answered At a primary-care follow-up visit: A patient with colon cancer has mismatch repair deficiency. Why is this clinically important? A. It proves benign disease B. It eliminates need for staging C. It means antibiotics cure cancer D. It is unrelated to family risk E. It may suggest Lynch syndrome and guide immunotherapy decisions Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: [Oncology] Mismatch repair deficiency can indicate Lynch syndrome and predicts benefit from immune checkpoint inhibitors in selected disease. Reference: NCCN Colon Cancer and Genetic/Familial High-Risk Assessment Guidelines. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 57 / 264 Not answered In a ward handover scenario: A 55-year-old woman has a suspicious breast mass and abnormal mammogram. What is required for diagnosis before definitive cancer treatment? A. Core needle biopsy B. CA 15-3 alone C. Empirical mastectomy without tissue D. Repeat mammogram in 5 years E. Antibiotics only for all masses Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: [Oncology] Breast cancer diagnosis requires tissue confirmation, commonly by core needle biopsy. Reference: NCCN Breast Cancer Guidelines. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 58 / 264 Not answered In a ward handover scenario: A 64-year-old smoker has hemoptysis and spiculated lung mass. What is the next diagnostic principle? A. Start chemotherapy without histology B. Obtain tissue diagnosis and stage disease before treatment C. Ignore if sputum culture is negative D. Treat as asthma E. Use CEA alone Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: [Oncology] Suspected lung cancer requires histologic confirmation and staging to guide therapy. Reference: NCCN Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer Guidelines. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 59 / 264 Not answered In a ward handover scenario: A man with metastatic prostate cancer has bone pain and very high PSA. What systemic therapy is foundational? A. Antibiotics only B. Colonoscopy C. Androgen deprivation therapy D. Thyroxine E. Aspirin monotherapy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: [Oncology] Androgen deprivation is foundational systemic therapy for advanced prostate cancer. Reference: EAU/NCCN Prostate Cancer Guidelines. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 60 / 264 Not answered In a ward handover scenario: A patient receiving chemotherapy develops fever 38.5 C and neutrophils 0.3 x10^9/L. What is the immediate management? A. Wait for culture results before antibiotics B. Oral antihistamine only C. No treatment if BP is normal D. Prompt empiric broad-spectrum anti-pseudomonal antibiotics E. Live vaccine Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: [Oncology] Febrile neutropenia is an oncologic emergency requiring immediate empiric broad-spectrum antibiotics. Reference: IDSA Fever and Neutropenia Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 12 of 53 Next → »