Oncology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 09:05 Page 17 of 53 Attempt #2457 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 81 / 264 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 71-year-old woman presents with progressive weight loss with chronic cough. Relevant risk context includes advanced-stage disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Malignant hypercalcemia B. Spinal cord compression syndrome C. Lung carcinoma suspicion D. Cancer-associated thrombosis E. Breast cancer recurrence concern Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of progressive weight loss with chronic cough with risk factors such as advanced-stage disease is most consistent with Malignant hypercalcemia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Oncology. Reference: WHO Classification and Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 82 / 264 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 45-year-old woman has fever during cytotoxic therapy with risk profile of immobility. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Bisphosphonate-based hypercalcemia management B. Dexamethasone with urgent oncologic referral for cord compression C. Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis D. Early palliative symptom control integration E. Guideline-based systemic therapy selection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Dexamethasone with urgent oncologic referral for cord compression is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Oncology. Reference: NCCN Clinical Practice Guidelines in Oncology Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 83 / 264 Not answered During morning rounds: a 46-year-old man presents with progressive weight loss with chronic cough. Relevant risk context includes family cancer history. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Lung carcinoma suspicion B. Cancer-associated thrombosis C. Malignant hypercalcemia D. Spinal cord compression syndrome E. Breast cancer recurrence concern Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of progressive weight loss with chronic cough with risk factors such as family cancer history is most consistent with Breast cancer recurrence concern. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Oncology. Reference: WHO Classification and Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 84 / 264 Not answered During morning rounds: a 49-year-old man presents with back pain with motor deficit. Relevant risk context includes recent chemotherapy. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Lung carcinoma suspicion B. Malignant hypercalcemia C. Breast cancer recurrence concern D. Cancer-associated thrombosis E. Spinal cord compression syndrome Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of back pain with motor deficit with risk factors such as recent chemotherapy is most consistent with Lung carcinoma suspicion. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Oncology. Reference: ASCO Guidelines; Oncology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 85 / 264 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 48-year-old woman presents with unilateral leg swelling in active cancer. Relevant risk context includes recent chemotherapy. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Febrile neutropenia B. Malignant hypercalcemia C. Cancer-associated thrombosis D. Breast cancer recurrence concern E. Spinal cord compression syndrome Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of unilateral leg swelling in active cancer with risk factors such as recent chemotherapy is most consistent with Cancer-associated thrombosis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Oncology. Reference: ESMO Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 17 of 53 Next → »