Oncology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 10:05 Page 18 of 53 Attempt #2546 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 86 / 264 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 70-year-old woman has confusion with severe hypercalcemia with risk profile of advanced-stage disease. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Early palliative symptom control integration B. Guideline-based systemic therapy selection C. Urgent broad-spectrum antibiotics in febrile neutropenia D. Dexamethasone with urgent oncologic referral for cord compression E. Bisphosphonate-based hypercalcemia management Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Early palliative symptom control integration is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Oncology. Reference: WHO Classification and Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 87 / 264 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 81-year-old man presents with unilateral leg swelling in active cancer. Relevant risk context includes family cancer history. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Malignant hypercalcemia B. Spinal cord compression syndrome C. Cancer-associated thrombosis D. Febrile neutropenia E. Breast cancer recurrence concern Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of unilateral leg swelling in active cancer with risk factors such as family cancer history is most consistent with Cancer-associated thrombosis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Oncology. Reference: NCCN Clinical Practice Guidelines in Oncology Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 88 / 264 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 30-year-old woman has confusion with severe hypercalcemia with risk profile of smoking. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Urgent broad-spectrum antibiotics in febrile neutropenia B. Bisphosphonate-based hypercalcemia management C. Early palliative symptom control integration D. Dexamethasone with urgent oncologic referral for cord compression E. Guideline-based systemic therapy selection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Bisphosphonate-based hypercalcemia management is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Oncology. Reference: WHO Classification and Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 89 / 264 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 39-year-old man is evaluated for fever during cytotoxic therapy in the context of high tumor burden. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Duplex imaging for suspected thrombosis B. Tissue biopsy for histologic confirmation C. Staging CT or PET pathway D. CBC with differential E. Serum calcium with ECG Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: CBC with differential is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Oncology. Reference: ESMO Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 90 / 264 Not answered During morning rounds: a 72-year-old man is evaluated for back pain with motor deficit in the context of immobility. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Serum calcium with ECG B. Staging CT or PET pathway C. Tissue biopsy for histologic confirmation D. MRI for suspected cord compression E. CBC with differential Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Tissue biopsy for histologic confirmation is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Oncology. Reference: ESMO Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 18 of 53 Next → »