Oncology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 11:01 Page 19 of 53 Attempt #2650 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 91 / 264 Not answered During ward handover: a 68-year-old woman presents with unilateral leg swelling in active cancer. Relevant risk context includes recent chemotherapy. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Febrile neutropenia B. Lung carcinoma suspicion C. Malignant hypercalcemia D. Cancer-associated thrombosis E. Breast cancer recurrence concern Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of unilateral leg swelling in active cancer with risk factors such as recent chemotherapy is most consistent with Febrile neutropenia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Oncology. Reference: ESMO Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 92 / 264 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 45-year-old man has new mass with constitutional symptoms with risk profile of family cancer history. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Bisphosphonate-based hypercalcemia management B. Early palliative symptom control integration C. Dexamethasone with urgent oncologic referral for cord compression D. Guideline-based systemic therapy selection E. Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Oncology. Reference: ASCO Guidelines; Oncology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 93 / 264 Not answered During morning rounds: a 26-year-old woman has back pain with motor deficit with risk profile of smoking. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Early palliative symptom control integration B. Dexamethasone with urgent oncologic referral for cord compression C. Urgent broad-spectrum antibiotics in febrile neutropenia D. Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis E. Bisphosphonate-based hypercalcemia management Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Urgent broad-spectrum antibiotics in febrile neutropenia is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Oncology. Reference: ESMO Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 94 / 264 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 78-year-old woman presents with new mass with constitutional symptoms. Relevant risk context includes advanced-stage disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Lung carcinoma suspicion B. Spinal cord compression syndrome C. Febrile neutropenia D. Breast cancer recurrence concern E. Cancer-associated thrombosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of new mass with constitutional symptoms with risk factors such as advanced-stage disease is most consistent with Cancer-associated thrombosis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Oncology. Reference: ESMO Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 95 / 264 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 45-year-old man has progressive weight loss with chronic cough with risk profile of recent chemotherapy. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Urgent broad-spectrum antibiotics in febrile neutropenia B. Bisphosphonate-based hypercalcemia management C. Early palliative symptom control integration D. Guideline-based systemic therapy selection E. Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Bisphosphonate-based hypercalcemia management is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Oncology. Reference: WHO Classification and Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 19 of 53 Next → »