Oncology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 11:54 Page 20 of 53 Attempt #2694 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 96 / 264 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 63-year-old woman presents with fever during cytotoxic therapy. Relevant risk context includes advanced-stage disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Lung carcinoma suspicion B. Spinal cord compression syndrome C. Febrile neutropenia D. Breast cancer recurrence concern E. Cancer-associated thrombosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of fever during cytotoxic therapy with risk factors such as advanced-stage disease is most consistent with Febrile neutropenia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Oncology. Reference: WHO Classification and Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 97 / 264 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 57-year-old man is evaluated for unilateral leg swelling in active cancer in the context of high tumor burden. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. MRI for suspected cord compression B. Staging CT or PET pathway C. CBC with differential D. Serum calcium with ECG E. Duplex imaging for suspected thrombosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: MRI for suspected cord compression is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Oncology. Reference: ESMO Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 98 / 264 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 31-year-old man has fever during cytotoxic therapy with risk profile of recent chemotherapy. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Early palliative symptom control integration B. Urgent broad-spectrum antibiotics in febrile neutropenia C. Bisphosphonate-based hypercalcemia management D. Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis E. Dexamethasone with urgent oncologic referral for cord compression Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Bisphosphonate-based hypercalcemia management is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Oncology. Reference: WHO Classification and Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 99 / 264 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 82-year-old woman presents with unilateral leg swelling in active cancer. Relevant risk context includes smoking. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Febrile neutropenia B. Lung carcinoma suspicion C. Cancer-associated thrombosis D. Breast cancer recurrence concern E. Malignant hypercalcemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of unilateral leg swelling in active cancer with risk factors such as smoking is most consistent with Malignant hypercalcemia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Oncology. Reference: ESMO Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 100 / 264 Not answered During ward handover: a 77-year-old woman is evaluated for new mass with constitutional symptoms in the context of high tumor burden. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Staging CT or PET pathway B. CBC with differential C. Tissue biopsy for histologic confirmation D. Duplex imaging for suspected thrombosis E. Serum calcium with ECG Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Staging CT or PET pathway is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Oncology. Reference: ESMO Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 20 of 53 Next → »