Oncology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 13:38 Page 22 of 53 Attempt #2785 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 106 / 264 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 77-year-old woman is evaluated for unilateral leg swelling in active cancer in the context of immobility. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. MRI for suspected cord compression B. Serum calcium with ECG C. Duplex imaging for suspected thrombosis D. Tissue biopsy for histologic confirmation E. Staging CT or PET pathway Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Tissue biopsy for histologic confirmation is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Oncology. Reference: ASCO Guidelines; Oncology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 107 / 264 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 69-year-old man is evaluated for confusion with severe hypercalcemia in the context of recent chemotherapy. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Staging CT or PET pathway B. Tissue biopsy for histologic confirmation C. Duplex imaging for suspected thrombosis D. Serum calcium with ECG E. CBC with differential Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Staging CT or PET pathway is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Oncology. Reference: WHO Classification and Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 108 / 264 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 71-year-old woman presents with progressive weight loss with chronic cough. Relevant risk context includes advanced-stage disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Lung carcinoma suspicion B. Malignant hypercalcemia C. Spinal cord compression syndrome D. Febrile neutropenia E. Breast cancer recurrence concern Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of progressive weight loss with chronic cough with risk factors such as advanced-stage disease is most consistent with Breast cancer recurrence concern. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Oncology. Reference: NCCN Clinical Practice Guidelines in Oncology Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 109 / 264 Not answered During ward handover: a 73-year-old woman is evaluated for unilateral leg swelling in active cancer in the context of high tumor burden. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Duplex imaging for suspected thrombosis B. Tissue biopsy for histologic confirmation C. Serum calcium with ECG D. CBC with differential E. Staging CT or PET pathway Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Staging CT or PET pathway is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Oncology. Reference: WHO Classification and Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 110 / 264 Not answered During ward handover: a 59-year-old man has confusion with severe hypercalcemia with risk profile of advanced-stage disease. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Guideline-based systemic therapy selection B. Urgent broad-spectrum antibiotics in febrile neutropenia C. Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis D. Bisphosphonate-based hypercalcemia management E. Early palliative symptom control integration Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Urgent broad-spectrum antibiotics in febrile neutropenia is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Oncology. Reference: WHO Classification and Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 22 of 53 Next → »