Oncology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 15:19 Page 24 of 53 Attempt #2873 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 116 / 264 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 58-year-old woman is evaluated for unilateral leg swelling in active cancer in the context of immobility. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. CBC with differential B. Tissue biopsy for histologic confirmation C. Staging CT or PET pathway D. MRI for suspected cord compression E. Serum calcium with ECG Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Serum calcium with ECG is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Oncology. Reference: ESMO Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 117 / 264 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 47-year-old woman has confusion with severe hypercalcemia with risk profile of immobility. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Early palliative symptom control integration B. Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis C. Bisphosphonate-based hypercalcemia management D. Urgent broad-spectrum antibiotics in febrile neutropenia E. Guideline-based systemic therapy selection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Urgent broad-spectrum antibiotics in febrile neutropenia is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Oncology. Reference: ESMO Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 118 / 264 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 58-year-old woman presents with new mass with constitutional symptoms. Relevant risk context includes high tumor burden. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Febrile neutropenia B. Spinal cord compression syndrome C. Lung carcinoma suspicion D. Malignant hypercalcemia E. Breast cancer recurrence concern Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of new mass with constitutional symptoms with risk factors such as high tumor burden is most consistent with Malignant hypercalcemia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Oncology. Reference: ASCO Guidelines; Oncology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 119 / 264 Not answered During morning rounds: a 38-year-old man has fever during cytotoxic therapy with risk profile of family cancer history. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis B. Guideline-based systemic therapy selection C. Bisphosphonate-based hypercalcemia management D. Dexamethasone with urgent oncologic referral for cord compression E. Urgent broad-spectrum antibiotics in febrile neutropenia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Oncology. Reference: ESMO Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 120 / 264 Not answered During morning rounds: a 44-year-old man has confusion with severe hypercalcemia with risk profile of high tumor burden. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Early palliative symptom control integration B. Dexamethasone with urgent oncologic referral for cord compression C. Guideline-based systemic therapy selection D. Bisphosphonate-based hypercalcemia management E. Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Early palliative symptom control integration is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Oncology. Reference: ESMO Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 24 of 53 Next → »