Oncology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 22:58 Page 27 of 53 Attempt #2982 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 131 / 264 Not answered During ward handover: a 77-year-old man is evaluated for unilateral leg swelling in active cancer in the context of recent chemotherapy. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Duplex imaging for suspected thrombosis B. Serum calcium with ECG C. CBC with differential D. MRI for suspected cord compression E. Staging CT or PET pathway Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Serum calcium with ECG is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Oncology. Reference: WHO Classification and Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 132 / 264 Not answered During morning rounds: a 70-year-old man has unilateral leg swelling in active cancer with risk profile of smoking. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Bisphosphonate-based hypercalcemia management B. Early palliative symptom control integration C. Dexamethasone with urgent oncologic referral for cord compression D. Urgent broad-spectrum antibiotics in febrile neutropenia E. Guideline-based systemic therapy selection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Guideline-based systemic therapy selection is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Oncology. Reference: WHO Classification and Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 133 / 264 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 40-year-old woman has unilateral leg swelling in active cancer with risk profile of high tumor burden. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis B. Urgent broad-spectrum antibiotics in febrile neutropenia C. Guideline-based systemic therapy selection D. Bisphosphonate-based hypercalcemia management E. Early palliative symptom control integration Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Urgent broad-spectrum antibiotics in febrile neutropenia is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Oncology. Reference: ASCO Guidelines; Oncology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 134 / 264 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 56-year-old man is evaluated for confusion with severe hypercalcemia in the context of smoking. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Duplex imaging for suspected thrombosis B. MRI for suspected cord compression C. Tissue biopsy for histologic confirmation D. CBC with differential E. Serum calcium with ECG Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Tissue biopsy for histologic confirmation is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Oncology. Reference: NCCN Clinical Practice Guidelines in Oncology Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 135 / 264 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 63-year-old man is evaluated for fever during cytotoxic therapy in the context of high tumor burden. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Tissue biopsy for histologic confirmation B. Serum calcium with ECG C. CBC with differential D. MRI for suspected cord compression E. Staging CT or PET pathway Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Tissue biopsy for histologic confirmation is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Oncology. Reference: ASCO Guidelines; Oncology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 27 of 53 Next → »