Oncology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 23:04 Page 28 of 53 Attempt #3000 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 136 / 264 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 69-year-old woman presents with back pain with motor deficit. Relevant risk context includes recent chemotherapy. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Breast cancer recurrence concern B. Cancer-associated thrombosis C. Malignant hypercalcemia D. Spinal cord compression syndrome E. Lung carcinoma suspicion Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of back pain with motor deficit with risk factors such as recent chemotherapy is most consistent with Spinal cord compression syndrome. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Oncology. Reference: WHO Classification and Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 137 / 264 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 43-year-old man is evaluated for new mass with constitutional symptoms in the context of family cancer history. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. MRI for suspected cord compression B. Tissue biopsy for histologic confirmation C. Staging CT or PET pathway D. Serum calcium with ECG E. Duplex imaging for suspected thrombosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Staging CT or PET pathway is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Oncology. Reference: ESMO Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 138 / 264 Not answered During ward handover: a 43-year-old woman is evaluated for confusion with severe hypercalcemia in the context of high tumor burden. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Duplex imaging for suspected thrombosis B. CBC with differential C. Serum calcium with ECG D. MRI for suspected cord compression E. Staging CT or PET pathway Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Serum calcium with ECG is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Oncology. Reference: WHO Classification and Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 139 / 264 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 67-year-old man presents with unilateral leg swelling in active cancer. Relevant risk context includes advanced-stage disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Lung carcinoma suspicion B. Breast cancer recurrence concern C. Febrile neutropenia D. Malignant hypercalcemia E. Cancer-associated thrombosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of unilateral leg swelling in active cancer with risk factors such as advanced-stage disease is most consistent with Febrile neutropenia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Oncology. Reference: ESMO Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 140 / 264 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 44-year-old woman has back pain with motor deficit with risk profile of immobility. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Early palliative symptom control integration B. Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis C. Guideline-based systemic therapy selection D. Bisphosphonate-based hypercalcemia management E. Urgent broad-spectrum antibiotics in febrile neutropenia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Urgent broad-spectrum antibiotics in febrile neutropenia is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Oncology. Reference: WHO Classification and Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 28 of 53 Next → »