Oncology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 16:20 Page 30 of 53 Attempt #2916 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 146 / 264 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 55-year-old man has fever during cytotoxic therapy with risk profile of advanced-stage disease. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Dexamethasone with urgent oncologic referral for cord compression B. Bisphosphonate-based hypercalcemia management C. Urgent broad-spectrum antibiotics in febrile neutropenia D. Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis E. Guideline-based systemic therapy selection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Dexamethasone with urgent oncologic referral for cord compression is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Oncology. Reference: NCCN Clinical Practice Guidelines in Oncology Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 147 / 264 Not answered During morning rounds: a 50-year-old man presents with confusion with severe hypercalcemia. Relevant risk context includes immobility. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Febrile neutropenia B. Spinal cord compression syndrome C. Breast cancer recurrence concern D. Lung carcinoma suspicion E. Cancer-associated thrombosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of confusion with severe hypercalcemia with risk factors such as immobility is most consistent with Febrile neutropenia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Oncology. Reference: NCCN Clinical Practice Guidelines in Oncology Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 148 / 264 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 77-year-old woman presents with unilateral leg swelling in active cancer. Relevant risk context includes family cancer history. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Febrile neutropenia B. Cancer-associated thrombosis C. Malignant hypercalcemia D. Breast cancer recurrence concern E. Lung carcinoma suspicion Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of unilateral leg swelling in active cancer with risk factors such as family cancer history is most consistent with Febrile neutropenia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Oncology. Reference: ASCO Guidelines; Oncology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 149 / 264 Not answered During ward handover: a 57-year-old woman is evaluated for progressive weight loss with chronic cough in the context of recent chemotherapy. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. CBC with differential B. Staging CT or PET pathway C. Serum calcium with ECG D. Duplex imaging for suspected thrombosis E. Tissue biopsy for histologic confirmation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Serum calcium with ECG is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Oncology. Reference: WHO Classification and Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 150 / 264 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 24-year-old woman presents with confusion with severe hypercalcemia. Relevant risk context includes family cancer history. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Spinal cord compression syndrome B. Lung carcinoma suspicion C. Breast cancer recurrence concern D. Malignant hypercalcemia E. Febrile neutropenia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of confusion with severe hypercalcemia with risk factors such as family cancer history is most consistent with Spinal cord compression syndrome. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Oncology. Reference: WHO Classification and Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 30 of 53 Next → »