Oncology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 13:34 Page 33 of 53 Attempt #2774 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 161 / 264 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 69-year-old man has progressive weight loss with chronic cough with risk profile of immobility. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Early palliative symptom control integration B. Urgent broad-spectrum antibiotics in febrile neutropenia C. Dexamethasone with urgent oncologic referral for cord compression D. Guideline-based systemic therapy selection E. Bisphosphonate-based hypercalcemia management Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Dexamethasone with urgent oncologic referral for cord compression is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Oncology. Reference: ESMO Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 162 / 264 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 67-year-old man is evaluated for unilateral leg swelling in active cancer in the context of advanced-stage disease. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Staging CT or PET pathway B. Tissue biopsy for histologic confirmation C. CBC with differential D. Serum calcium with ECG E. Duplex imaging for suspected thrombosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Serum calcium with ECG is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Oncology. Reference: WHO Classification and Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 163 / 264 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 79-year-old man has confusion with severe hypercalcemia with risk profile of recent chemotherapy. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Bisphosphonate-based hypercalcemia management B. Early palliative symptom control integration C. Guideline-based systemic therapy selection D. Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis E. Dexamethasone with urgent oncologic referral for cord compression Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Guideline-based systemic therapy selection is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Oncology. Reference: ESMO Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 164 / 264 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 28-year-old man has unilateral leg swelling in active cancer with risk profile of recent chemotherapy. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Dexamethasone with urgent oncologic referral for cord compression B. Urgent broad-spectrum antibiotics in febrile neutropenia C. Guideline-based systemic therapy selection D. Bisphosphonate-based hypercalcemia management E. Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Oncology. Reference: NCCN Clinical Practice Guidelines in Oncology Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 165 / 264 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 33-year-old woman has confusion with severe hypercalcemia with risk profile of family cancer history. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Guideline-based systemic therapy selection B. Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis C. Dexamethasone with urgent oncologic referral for cord compression D. Bisphosphonate-based hypercalcemia management E. Urgent broad-spectrum antibiotics in febrile neutropenia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Oncology. Reference: ESMO Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 33 of 53 Next → »