Oncology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 11:53 Page 35 of 53 Attempt #2683 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 171 / 264 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 78-year-old man has fever during cytotoxic therapy with risk profile of family cancer history. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Dexamethasone with urgent oncologic referral for cord compression B. Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis C. Early palliative symptom control integration D. Urgent broad-spectrum antibiotics in febrile neutropenia E. Bisphosphonate-based hypercalcemia management Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Oncology. Reference: NCCN Clinical Practice Guidelines in Oncology Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 172 / 264 Not answered During ward handover: a 75-year-old man is evaluated for progressive weight loss with chronic cough in the context of immobility. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Serum calcium with ECG B. Duplex imaging for suspected thrombosis C. Staging CT or PET pathway D. MRI for suspected cord compression E. Tissue biopsy for histologic confirmation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Staging CT or PET pathway is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Oncology. Reference: ASCO Guidelines; Oncology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 173 / 264 Not answered During ward handover: a 78-year-old man has new mass with constitutional symptoms with risk profile of advanced-stage disease. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Bisphosphonate-based hypercalcemia management B. Urgent broad-spectrum antibiotics in febrile neutropenia C. Dexamethasone with urgent oncologic referral for cord compression D. Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis E. Early palliative symptom control integration Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Dexamethasone with urgent oncologic referral for cord compression is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Oncology. Reference: WHO Classification and Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 174 / 264 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 67-year-old man is evaluated for back pain with motor deficit in the context of family cancer history. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. MRI for suspected cord compression B. Tissue biopsy for histologic confirmation C. CBC with differential D. Serum calcium with ECG E. Duplex imaging for suspected thrombosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: CBC with differential is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Oncology. Reference: WHO Classification and Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 175 / 264 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 45-year-old man has new mass with constitutional symptoms with risk profile of smoking. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Dexamethasone with urgent oncologic referral for cord compression B. Urgent broad-spectrum antibiotics in febrile neutropenia C. Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis D. Early palliative symptom control integration E. Guideline-based systemic therapy selection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Oncology. Reference: NCCN Clinical Practice Guidelines in Oncology Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 35 of 53 Next → »