Oncology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 11:00 Page 36 of 53 Attempt #2635 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 176 / 264 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 63-year-old woman is evaluated for unilateral leg swelling in active cancer in the context of immobility. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. CBC with differential B. Serum calcium with ECG C. MRI for suspected cord compression D. Tissue biopsy for histologic confirmation E. Staging CT or PET pathway Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: CBC with differential is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Oncology. Reference: NCCN Clinical Practice Guidelines in Oncology Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 177 / 264 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 68-year-old man has unilateral leg swelling in active cancer with risk profile of advanced-stage disease. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Bisphosphonate-based hypercalcemia management B. Early palliative symptom control integration C. Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis D. Dexamethasone with urgent oncologic referral for cord compression E. Guideline-based systemic therapy selection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Oncology. Reference: ASCO Guidelines; Oncology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 178 / 264 Not answered During ward handover: a 68-year-old man is evaluated for confusion with severe hypercalcemia in the context of recent chemotherapy. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. MRI for suspected cord compression B. Tissue biopsy for histologic confirmation C. Staging CT or PET pathway D. Duplex imaging for suspected thrombosis E. CBC with differential Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: CBC with differential is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Oncology. Reference: ASCO Guidelines; Oncology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 179 / 264 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 41-year-old man has fever during cytotoxic therapy with risk profile of family cancer history. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Urgent broad-spectrum antibiotics in febrile neutropenia B. Dexamethasone with urgent oncologic referral for cord compression C. Bisphosphonate-based hypercalcemia management D. Early palliative symptom control integration E. Guideline-based systemic therapy selection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Dexamethasone with urgent oncologic referral for cord compression is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Oncology. Reference: WHO Classification and Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 180 / 264 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 77-year-old man has unilateral leg swelling in active cancer with risk profile of high tumor burden. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Dexamethasone with urgent oncologic referral for cord compression B. Guideline-based systemic therapy selection C. Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis D. Bisphosphonate-based hypercalcemia management E. Early palliative symptom control integration Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Oncology. Reference: ASCO Guidelines; Oncology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 36 of 53 Next → »