Oncology Board Exam Started: Jul 12, 2026 22:48 Page 49 of 53 Attempt #1265 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 241 / 264 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 68-year-old man has confusion with severe hypercalcemia with risk profile of recent chemotherapy. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Early palliative symptom control integration B. Dexamethasone with urgent oncologic referral for cord compression C. Urgent broad-spectrum antibiotics in febrile neutropenia D. Guideline-based systemic therapy selection E. Bisphosphonate-based hypercalcemia management Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Dexamethasone with urgent oncologic referral for cord compression is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Oncology. Reference: WHO Classification and Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 242 / 264 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 63-year-old man is evaluated for unilateral leg swelling in active cancer in the context of smoking. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. MRI for suspected cord compression B. CBC with differential C. Serum calcium with ECG D. Staging CT or PET pathway E. Tissue biopsy for histologic confirmation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: CBC with differential is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Oncology. Reference: WHO Classification and Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 243 / 264 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 80-year-old man has back pain with motor deficit with risk profile of smoking. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Urgent broad-spectrum antibiotics in febrile neutropenia B. Dexamethasone with urgent oncologic referral for cord compression C. Guideline-based systemic therapy selection D. Early palliative symptom control integration E. Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Oncology. Reference: ESMO Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 244 / 264 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 39-year-old woman is evaluated for back pain with motor deficit in the context of family cancer history. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. CBC with differential B. Tissue biopsy for histologic confirmation C. Serum calcium with ECG D. Duplex imaging for suspected thrombosis E. Staging CT or PET pathway Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Serum calcium with ECG is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Oncology. Reference: ASCO Guidelines; Oncology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 245 / 264 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 27-year-old woman presents with unilateral leg swelling in active cancer. Relevant risk context includes high tumor burden. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Cancer-associated thrombosis B. Breast cancer recurrence concern C. Spinal cord compression syndrome D. Lung carcinoma suspicion E. Febrile neutropenia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of unilateral leg swelling in active cancer with risk factors such as high tumor burden is most consistent with Lung carcinoma suspicion. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Oncology. Reference: WHO Classification and Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 49 of 53 Next → »