Oncology Board Exam Started: Jul 12, 2026 20:21 Page 52 of 53 Attempt #867 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 256 / 264 Not answered During ward handover: a 59-year-old man presents with new mass with constitutional symptoms. Relevant risk context includes high tumor burden. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Lung carcinoma suspicion B. Cancer-associated thrombosis C. Spinal cord compression syndrome D. Febrile neutropenia E. Malignant hypercalcemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of new mass with constitutional symptoms with risk factors such as high tumor burden is most consistent with Malignant hypercalcemia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Oncology. Reference: WHO Classification and Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 257 / 264 Not answered During ward handover: a 81-year-old man is evaluated for unilateral leg swelling in active cancer in the context of immobility. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Staging CT or PET pathway B. Tissue biopsy for histologic confirmation C. CBC with differential D. MRI for suspected cord compression E. Duplex imaging for suspected thrombosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Tissue biopsy for histologic confirmation is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Oncology. Reference: NCCN Clinical Practice Guidelines in Oncology Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 258 / 264 Not answered During morning rounds: a 43-year-old woman is evaluated for fever during cytotoxic therapy in the context of advanced-stage disease. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Duplex imaging for suspected thrombosis B. Tissue biopsy for histologic confirmation C. MRI for suspected cord compression D. Serum calcium with ECG E. CBC with differential Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Serum calcium with ECG is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Oncology. Reference: ESMO Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 259 / 264 Not answered During morning rounds: a 34-year-old man has back pain with motor deficit with risk profile of immobility. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Bisphosphonate-based hypercalcemia management B. Guideline-based systemic therapy selection C. Early palliative symptom control integration D. Urgent broad-spectrum antibiotics in febrile neutropenia E. Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Urgent broad-spectrum antibiotics in febrile neutropenia is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Oncology. Reference: NCCN Clinical Practice Guidelines in Oncology Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 260 / 264 Not answered During morning rounds: a 27-year-old man has fever during cytotoxic therapy with risk profile of high tumor burden. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis B. Dexamethasone with urgent oncologic referral for cord compression C. Urgent broad-spectrum antibiotics in febrile neutropenia D. Bisphosphonate-based hypercalcemia management E. Early palliative symptom control integration Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Urgent broad-spectrum antibiotics in febrile neutropenia is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Oncology. Reference: ASCO Guidelines; Oncology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 52 of 53 Next → »