Infectious Disease Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 02:44 Page 10 of 57 Attempt #1747 Overall: 0 / 282 questions answered Question 46 / 282 Not answered During an emergency department assessment: A 45-year-old has chronic cough, weight loss, night sweats, and upper-lobe cavitation. What infection must be evaluated? A. Influenza only B. Tetanus C. Cellulitis D. Pulmonary tuberculosis E. Giardiasis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: [Infectious Disease] Chronic systemic symptoms with cavitary upper-lobe disease suggest pulmonary TB requiring sputum testing and isolation. Reference: WHO Consolidated Guidelines on Tuberculosis. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 47 / 282 Not answered During an emergency department assessment: A patient has fever, neck stiffness, confusion, and nonblanching rash. What is the immediate management? A. Wait 24 hours for viral PCR B. Oral penicillin only C. Blood cultures and urgent empiric IV antibiotics without delaying for LP if unsafe D. Discharge with analgesia E. Steroid cream Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: [Infectious Disease] Suspected bacterial meningitis requires urgent empiric antibiotics after cultures; LP should not delay treatment if contraindicated or delayed. Reference: IDSA Bacterial Meningitis Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 48 / 282 Not answered During an emergency department assessment: A 30-year-old has urethral discharge and NAAT positive for gonorrhea. What treatment principle is correct? A. Use acyclovir only B. Treat gonorrhea with recommended ceftriaxone regimen and cover chlamydia if not excluded C. No partner management is needed D. Treat with metronidazole only E. Give BCG vaccine Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: [Infectious Disease] Gonorrhea requires ceftriaxone-based therapy, with chlamydia treatment if coinfection is not excluded and partner management. Reference: CDC Sexually Transmitted Infections Treatment Guidelines. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 49 / 282 Not answered A patient has acute urticaria without airway, breathing, circulation, or GI compromise. What is first-line symptomatic therapy? (Variant 981) A. Second-generation H1 antihistamine B. IM epinephrine for every isolated wheal C. Long-term oral steroid for all D. Antibiotic E. Warfarin Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: [Infectious Disease] Acute urticaria without anaphylaxis is treated with non-sedating H1 antihistamines. Reference: EAACI/GA2LEN/EuroGuiDerm/APAAACI Urticaria Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 50 / 282 Not answered A pregnant patient needs influenza prevention. Which vaccine type is appropriate? (Variant 980) A. Live intranasal influenza vaccine B. BCG vaccine C. Varicella vaccine D. No vaccine in pregnancy ever E. Inactivated influenza vaccine Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: [Infectious Disease] Inactivated influenza vaccine is recommended in pregnancy; live attenuated intranasal vaccine is avoided. Reference: CDC/ACIP Immunization in Pregnancy Guidance. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 10 of 57 Next → »