Infectious Disease Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 08:12 Page 16 of 57 Attempt #2361 Overall: 0 / 282 questions answered Question 76 / 282 Not answered At a primary-care follow-up visit: A patient has fever, neck stiffness, confusion, and nonblanching rash. What is the immediate management? A. Wait 24 hours for viral PCR B. Oral penicillin only C. Discharge with analgesia D. Blood cultures and urgent empiric IV antibiotics without delaying for LP if unsafe E. Steroid cream Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: [Infectious Disease] Suspected bacterial meningitis requires urgent empiric antibiotics after cultures; LP should not delay treatment if contraindicated or delayed. Reference: IDSA Bacterial Meningitis Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 77 / 282 Not answered At a primary-care follow-up visit: A 45-year-old has chronic cough, weight loss, night sweats, and upper-lobe cavitation. What infection must be evaluated? A. Influenza only B. Tetanus C. Cellulitis D. Giardiasis E. Pulmonary tuberculosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: [Infectious Disease] Chronic systemic symptoms with cavitary upper-lobe disease suggest pulmonary TB requiring sputum testing and isolation. Reference: WHO Consolidated Guidelines on Tuberculosis. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 78 / 282 Not answered At a primary-care follow-up visit: A patient with HIV has CD4 count 80 cells/microliter and dyspnea with diffuse bilateral infiltrates. What opportunistic infection is likely? A. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia B. Tinea corporis C. Simple cystitis D. Tetanus E. Otitis externa Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: [Infectious Disease] CD4 <200 with subacute dyspnea and diffuse infiltrates suggests Pneumocystis pneumonia. Reference: NIH/CDC/IDSA Opportunistic Infection Guidelines for HIV. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 79 / 282 Not answered At a primary-care follow-up visit: A traveler returns with fever, thrombocytopenia, and positive malaria smear for P. falciparum. What is the key management principle? A. Treat with amoxicillin only B. Assess severity urgently and treat with effective antimalarial therapy; severe disease needs IV artesunate C. Delay treatment until repeat smear in a month D. Use topical permethrin E. Give influenza vaccine as treatment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: [Infectious Disease] Falciparum malaria can deteriorate rapidly; severity assessment determines oral ACT versus IV artesunate. Reference: WHO Guidelines for Malaria. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 80 / 282 Not answered At a primary-care follow-up visit: A patient with suspected anaphylaxis has airway swelling and hypotension. What is the correct route for first-line epinephrine? (Variant 998) A. Subcutaneous injection into forearm B. Oral tablet C. Intramuscular injection into the mid-anterolateral thigh D. Nebulized only E. Topical application Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: [Infectious Disease] IM epinephrine into the mid-anterolateral thigh is first-line for anaphylaxis. Reference: World Allergy Organization Anaphylaxis Guidance. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 16 of 57 Next → »