Infectious Disease Board Exam Started: Jul 12, 2026 19:27 Page 2 of 57 Attempt #736 Overall: 0 / 282 questions answered Question 6 / 282 Not answered During preoperative assessment: A patient has acute urticaria without airway, breathing, circulation, or GI compromise. What is first-line symptomatic therapy? (Variant 1025) A. IM epinephrine for every isolated wheal B. Long-term oral steroid for all C. Antibiotic D. Warfarin E. Second-generation H1 antihistamine Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: [Infectious Disease] Acute urticaria without anaphylaxis is treated with non-sedating H1 antihistamines. Reference: EAACI/GA2LEN/EuroGuiDerm/APAAACI Urticaria Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 7 / 282 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: A 30-year-old has urethral discharge and NAAT positive for gonorrhea. What treatment principle is correct? A. Treat gonorrhea with recommended ceftriaxone regimen and cover chlamydia if not excluded B. Use acyclovir only C. No partner management is needed D. Treat with metronidazole only E. Give BCG vaccine Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: [Infectious Disease] Gonorrhea requires ceftriaxone-based therapy, with chlamydia treatment if coinfection is not excluded and partner management. Reference: CDC Sexually Transmitted Infections Treatment Guidelines. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 8 / 282 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: A patient has fever, neck stiffness, confusion, and nonblanching rash. What is the immediate management? A. Wait 24 hours for viral PCR B. Blood cultures and urgent empiric IV antibiotics without delaying for LP if unsafe C. Oral penicillin only D. Discharge with analgesia E. Steroid cream Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: [Infectious Disease] Suspected bacterial meningitis requires urgent empiric antibiotics after cultures; LP should not delay treatment if contraindicated or delayed. Reference: IDSA Bacterial Meningitis Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 9 / 282 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: A 45-year-old has chronic cough, weight loss, night sweats, and upper-lobe cavitation. What infection must be evaluated? A. Influenza only B. Tetanus C. Pulmonary tuberculosis D. Cellulitis E. Giardiasis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: [Infectious Disease] Chronic systemic symptoms with cavitary upper-lobe disease suggest pulmonary TB requiring sputum testing and isolation. Reference: WHO Consolidated Guidelines on Tuberculosis. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 10 / 282 Not answered During preoperative assessment: A patient with suspected anaphylaxis has airway swelling and hypotension. What is the correct route for first-line epinephrine? (Variant 1020) A. Subcutaneous injection into forearm B. Oral tablet C. Nebulized only D. Topical application E. Intramuscular injection into the mid-anterolateral thigh Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: [Infectious Disease] IM epinephrine into the mid-anterolateral thigh is first-line for anaphylaxis. Reference: World Allergy Organization Anaphylaxis Guidance. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 2 of 57 Next → »