Psychiatry Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 03:23 Page 11 of 53 Attempt #1794 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 51 / 264 Not answered During preoperative assessment: A patient with schizophrenia has acute dystonia after haloperidol. What is the best immediate treatment? A. More haloperidol only B. Lithium loading C. No treatment ever needed D. Anticholinergic such as benztropine or diphenhydramine E. SSRI as antidote Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: [Psychiatry] Acute dystonia from dopamine blockade is treated with anticholinergic medication. Reference: Maudsley Prescribing Guidelines in Psychiatry. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 52 / 264 Not answered During preoperative assessment: A patient has recurrent unexpected panic attacks and persistent worry about more attacks for 2 months. What is the diagnosis? A. Social anxiety disorder B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder C. Panic disorder D. Delirium E. Anorexia nervosa Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: [Psychiatry] Recurrent unexpected panic attacks plus persistent concern or maladaptive change for at least 1 month defines panic disorder. Reference: DSM-5-TR. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 53 / 264 Not answered During preoperative assessment: A 24-year-old has 5 days of decreased sleep, pressured speech, grandiosity, and risky spending causing hospitalization. What is the diagnosis? A. Generalized anxiety disorder B. Manic episode C. Dysthymia D. Adjustment disorder E. Specific phobia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: [Psychiatry] Mania involves elevated/irritable mood and increased energy with characteristic symptoms causing marked impairment or hospitalization. Reference: DSM-5-TR. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 54 / 264 Not answered During preoperative assessment: A 32-year-old has depressed mood, anhedonia, poor sleep, guilt, and impaired function for 3 weeks. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Major depressive episode B. Bipolar mania C. Panic disorder only D. Schizophrenia E. Delirium Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: [Psychiatry] At least 2 weeks of depressed mood or anhedonia plus neurovegetative/cognitive symptoms and impairment supports major depressive episode. Reference: DSM-5-TR. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 55 / 264 Not answered In a ward handover scenario: A teenager presents after self-harm. What is the most important immediate clinical task? A. Promise confidentiality without limits B. Focus only on school grades C. Discharge without family/safety assessment D. Start antibiotics E. Assess suicide risk, intent, means, safety, and need for urgent protection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: [Psychiatry] Self-harm requires structured suicide risk and safety assessment, including intent, means, protective factors, and safeguarding. Reference: NICE Self-harm Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 11 of 53 Next → »