Psychiatry Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 20:41 Page 26 of 53 Attempt #2954 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 126 / 264 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 62-year-old man presents with auditory hallucinations with functional decline. Relevant risk context includes poor treatment adherence. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute suicide risk state B. Alcohol use disorder C. Schizophrenia spectrum disorder D. Major depressive disorder E. Generalized anxiety disorder Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of auditory hallucinations with functional decline with risk factors such as poor treatment adherence is most consistent with Generalized anxiety disorder. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Psychiatry. Reference: CANMAT Guidelines; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 127 / 264 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 69-year-old woman is evaluated for excessive uncontrollable worry in the context of family psychiatric history. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Structured psychiatric interview B. Medical cause exclusion workup C. Substance use screening tools D. Baseline metabolic monitoring E. Collateral history when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Baseline metabolic monitoring is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Psychiatry. Reference: CANMAT Guidelines; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 128 / 264 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 40-year-old woman is evaluated for persistent low mood with anhedonia in the context of trauma exposure. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Substance use screening tools B. Baseline metabolic monitoring C. Medical cause exclusion workup D. Collateral history when indicated E. Structured psychiatric interview Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Baseline metabolic monitoring is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Psychiatry. Reference: CANMAT Guidelines; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 129 / 264 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 71-year-old man presents with excessive uncontrollable worry. Relevant risk context includes poor treatment adherence. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute suicide risk state B. Alcohol use disorder C. Generalized anxiety disorder D. Schizophrenia spectrum disorder E. Major depressive disorder Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of excessive uncontrollable worry with risk factors such as poor treatment adherence is most consistent with Generalized anxiety disorder. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Psychiatry. Reference: CANMAT Guidelines; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 130 / 264 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 37-year-old man has recent self-harm with ongoing intent with risk profile of trauma exposure. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Evidence-based psychotherapy pathway B. Early follow-up and monitoring C. Integrated addiction treatment plan D. Appropriate first-line pharmacotherapy E. Safety planning with crisis intervention Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Evidence-based psychotherapy pathway is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Psychiatry. Reference: APA Practice Guidelines; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 26 of 53 Next → »