Psychiatry Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 23:02 Page 27 of 53 Attempt #2995 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 131 / 264 Not answered During ward handover: a 52-year-old woman has excessive uncontrollable worry with risk profile of psychosocial stress. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Integrated addiction treatment plan B. Safety planning with crisis intervention C. Evidence-based psychotherapy pathway D. Family and social support engagement E. Appropriate first-line pharmacotherapy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Family and social support engagement is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Psychiatry. Reference: WHO mhGAP Guidance; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 132 / 264 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 57-year-old man is evaluated for persistent low mood with anhedonia in the context of substance misuse. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Suicide risk assessment B. Substance use screening tools C. Baseline metabolic monitoring D. Collateral history when indicated E. Medical cause exclusion workup Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Medical cause exclusion workup is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Psychiatry. Reference: NICE Mental Health Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 133 / 264 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 39-year-old man presents with episodic elevated mood with reduced sleep. Relevant risk context includes family psychiatric history. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Major depressive disorder B. Acute suicide risk state C. Alcohol use disorder D. Schizophrenia spectrum disorder E. Bipolar disorder Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of episodic elevated mood with reduced sleep with risk factors such as family psychiatric history is most consistent with Schizophrenia spectrum disorder. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Psychiatry. Reference: CANMAT Guidelines; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 134 / 264 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 65-year-old woman has recent self-harm with ongoing intent with risk profile of family psychiatric history. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Evidence-based psychotherapy pathway B. Family and social support engagement C. Integrated addiction treatment plan D. Safety planning with crisis intervention E. Appropriate first-line pharmacotherapy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Family and social support engagement is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Psychiatry. Reference: WHO mhGAP Guidance; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 135 / 264 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 53-year-old man presents with recent self-harm with ongoing intent. Relevant risk context includes substance misuse. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Major depressive disorder B. Bipolar disorder C. Alcohol use disorder D. Generalized anxiety disorder E. Schizophrenia spectrum disorder Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of recent self-harm with ongoing intent with risk factors such as substance misuse is most consistent with Major depressive disorder. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Psychiatry. Reference: APA Practice Guidelines; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 27 of 53 Next → »