Psychiatry Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 23:02 Page 28 of 53 Attempt #2996 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 136 / 264 Not answered During morning rounds: a 57-year-old man is evaluated for recent self-harm with ongoing intent in the context of family psychiatric history. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Medical cause exclusion workup B. Suicide risk assessment C. Structured psychiatric interview D. Substance use screening tools E. Baseline metabolic monitoring Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Substance use screening tools is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Psychiatry. Reference: CANMAT Guidelines; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 137 / 264 Not answered During morning rounds: a 79-year-old man is evaluated for auditory hallucinations with functional decline in the context of family psychiatric history. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Collateral history when indicated B. Medical cause exclusion workup C. Substance use screening tools D. Baseline metabolic monitoring E. Suicide risk assessment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Substance use screening tools is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Psychiatry. Reference: WHO mhGAP Guidance; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 138 / 264 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 30-year-old woman presents with recent self-harm with ongoing intent. Relevant risk context includes family psychiatric history. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Bipolar disorder B. Major depressive disorder C. Generalized anxiety disorder D. Alcohol use disorder E. Schizophrenia spectrum disorder Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of recent self-harm with ongoing intent with risk factors such as family psychiatric history is most consistent with Alcohol use disorder. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Psychiatry. Reference: WHO mhGAP Guidance; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 139 / 264 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 54-year-old woman presents with episodic elevated mood with reduced sleep. Relevant risk context includes psychosocial stress. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Bipolar disorder B. Alcohol use disorder C. Major depressive disorder D. Generalized anxiety disorder E. Schizophrenia spectrum disorder Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of episodic elevated mood with reduced sleep with risk factors such as psychosocial stress is most consistent with Major depressive disorder. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Psychiatry. Reference: WHO mhGAP Guidance; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 140 / 264 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 48-year-old man has recent self-harm with ongoing intent with risk profile of substance misuse. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Family and social support engagement B. Safety planning with crisis intervention C. Integrated addiction treatment plan D. Early follow-up and monitoring E. Evidence-based psychotherapy pathway Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Integrated addiction treatment plan is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Psychiatry. Reference: NICE Mental Health Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 28 of 53 Next → »