Psychiatry Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 16:15 Page 30 of 53 Attempt #2902 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 146 / 264 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 75-year-old man has persistent low mood with anhedonia with risk profile of social isolation. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Appropriate first-line pharmacotherapy B. Family and social support engagement C. Early follow-up and monitoring D. Evidence-based psychotherapy pathway E. Integrated addiction treatment plan Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Family and social support engagement is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Psychiatry. Reference: WHO mhGAP Guidance; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 147 / 264 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 72-year-old man presents with excessive uncontrollable worry. Relevant risk context includes substance misuse. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Major depressive disorder B. Schizophrenia spectrum disorder C. Bipolar disorder D. Alcohol use disorder E. Acute suicide risk state Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of excessive uncontrollable worry with risk factors such as substance misuse is most consistent with Acute suicide risk state. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Psychiatry. Reference: CANMAT Guidelines; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 148 / 264 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 74-year-old man is evaluated for withdrawal symptoms with craving in the context of social isolation. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Collateral history when indicated B. Substance use screening tools C. Suicide risk assessment D. Medical cause exclusion workup E. Baseline metabolic monitoring Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Suicide risk assessment is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Psychiatry. Reference: WHO mhGAP Guidance; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 149 / 264 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 30-year-old woman is evaluated for withdrawal symptoms with craving in the context of substance misuse. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Collateral history when indicated B. Baseline metabolic monitoring C. Medical cause exclusion workup D. Substance use screening tools E. Structured psychiatric interview Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Collateral history when indicated is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Psychiatry. Reference: WHO mhGAP Guidance; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 150 / 264 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 41-year-old woman has persistent low mood with anhedonia with risk profile of poor treatment adherence. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Early follow-up and monitoring B. Appropriate first-line pharmacotherapy C. Safety planning with crisis intervention D. Integrated addiction treatment plan E. Family and social support engagement Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Integrated addiction treatment plan is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Psychiatry. Reference: APA Practice Guidelines; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 30 of 53 Next → »