Psychiatry Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 13:31 Page 33 of 53 Attempt #2766 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 161 / 264 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 54-year-old woman has recent self-harm with ongoing intent with risk profile of psychosocial stress. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Evidence-based psychotherapy pathway B. Safety planning with crisis intervention C. Family and social support engagement D. Integrated addiction treatment plan E. Early follow-up and monitoring Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Family and social support engagement is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Psychiatry. Reference: WHO mhGAP Guidance; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 162 / 264 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 79-year-old man presents with episodic elevated mood with reduced sleep. Relevant risk context includes trauma exposure. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Schizophrenia spectrum disorder B. Acute suicide risk state C. Alcohol use disorder D. Bipolar disorder E. Major depressive disorder Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of episodic elevated mood with reduced sleep with risk factors such as trauma exposure is most consistent with Major depressive disorder. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Psychiatry. Reference: APA Practice Guidelines; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 163 / 264 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 34-year-old man presents with episodic elevated mood with reduced sleep. Relevant risk context includes trauma exposure. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Bipolar disorder B. Acute suicide risk state C. Major depressive disorder D. Generalized anxiety disorder E. Schizophrenia spectrum disorder Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of episodic elevated mood with reduced sleep with risk factors such as trauma exposure is most consistent with Acute suicide risk state. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Psychiatry. Reference: CANMAT Guidelines; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 164 / 264 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 50-year-old woman is evaluated for auditory hallucinations with functional decline in the context of social isolation. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Collateral history when indicated B. Structured psychiatric interview C. Substance use screening tools D. Suicide risk assessment E. Medical cause exclusion workup Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Substance use screening tools is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Psychiatry. Reference: NICE Mental Health Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 165 / 264 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 44-year-old man is evaluated for excessive uncontrollable worry in the context of family psychiatric history. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Medical cause exclusion workup B. Structured psychiatric interview C. Collateral history when indicated D. Substance use screening tools E. Baseline metabolic monitoring Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Baseline metabolic monitoring is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Psychiatry. Reference: CANMAT Guidelines; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 33 of 53 Next → »