Psychiatry Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 12:43 Page 34 of 53 Attempt #2727 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 166 / 264 Not answered During morning rounds: a 40-year-old man presents with persistent low mood with anhedonia. Relevant risk context includes poor treatment adherence. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Major depressive disorder B. Acute suicide risk state C. Bipolar disorder D. Alcohol use disorder E. Generalized anxiety disorder Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of persistent low mood with anhedonia with risk factors such as poor treatment adherence is most consistent with Acute suicide risk state. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Psychiatry. Reference: WHO mhGAP Guidance; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 167 / 264 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 80-year-old woman is evaluated for excessive uncontrollable worry in the context of social isolation. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Collateral history when indicated B. Baseline metabolic monitoring C. Substance use screening tools D. Suicide risk assessment E. Structured psychiatric interview Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Baseline metabolic monitoring is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Psychiatry. Reference: NICE Mental Health Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 168 / 264 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 62-year-old man is evaluated for episodic elevated mood with reduced sleep in the context of poor treatment adherence. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Collateral history when indicated B. Medical cause exclusion workup C. Substance use screening tools D. Suicide risk assessment E. Baseline metabolic monitoring Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Suicide risk assessment is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Psychiatry. Reference: APA Practice Guidelines; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 169 / 264 Not answered During ward handover: a 72-year-old man has excessive uncontrollable worry with risk profile of psychosocial stress. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Evidence-based psychotherapy pathway B. Family and social support engagement C. Integrated addiction treatment plan D. Appropriate first-line pharmacotherapy E. Early follow-up and monitoring Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Evidence-based psychotherapy pathway is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Psychiatry. Reference: APA Practice Guidelines; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 170 / 264 Not answered During ward handover: a 27-year-old woman has episodic elevated mood with reduced sleep with risk profile of substance misuse. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Early follow-up and monitoring B. Appropriate first-line pharmacotherapy C. Family and social support engagement D. Evidence-based psychotherapy pathway E. Integrated addiction treatment plan Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Evidence-based psychotherapy pathway is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Psychiatry. Reference: WHO mhGAP Guidance; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 34 of 53 Next → »