Psychiatry Board Exam Started: Jul 12, 2026 22:47 Page 49 of 53 Attempt #1264 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 241 / 264 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 26-year-old man presents with excessive uncontrollable worry. Relevant risk context includes substance misuse. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Bipolar disorder B. Schizophrenia spectrum disorder C. Major depressive disorder D. Generalized anxiety disorder E. Alcohol use disorder Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of excessive uncontrollable worry with risk factors such as substance misuse is most consistent with Generalized anxiety disorder. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Psychiatry. Reference: NICE Mental Health Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 242 / 264 Not answered During morning rounds: a 50-year-old man presents with auditory hallucinations with functional decline. Relevant risk context includes social isolation. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Major depressive disorder B. Alcohol use disorder C. Generalized anxiety disorder D. Acute suicide risk state E. Schizophrenia spectrum disorder Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of auditory hallucinations with functional decline with risk factors such as social isolation is most consistent with Alcohol use disorder. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Psychiatry. Reference: APA Practice Guidelines; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 243 / 264 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 68-year-old man is evaluated for persistent low mood with anhedonia in the context of trauma exposure. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Substance use screening tools B. Collateral history when indicated C. Suicide risk assessment D. Baseline metabolic monitoring E. Structured psychiatric interview Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Suicide risk assessment is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Psychiatry. Reference: APA Practice Guidelines; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 244 / 264 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 46-year-old man has withdrawal symptoms with craving with risk profile of social isolation. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Appropriate first-line pharmacotherapy B. Family and social support engagement C. Early follow-up and monitoring D. Integrated addiction treatment plan E. Evidence-based psychotherapy pathway Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Integrated addiction treatment plan is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Psychiatry. Reference: CANMAT Guidelines; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 245 / 264 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 24-year-old man presents with episodic elevated mood with reduced sleep. Relevant risk context includes social isolation. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Generalized anxiety disorder B. Acute suicide risk state C. Bipolar disorder D. Alcohol use disorder E. Major depressive disorder Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of episodic elevated mood with reduced sleep with risk factors such as social isolation is most consistent with Major depressive disorder. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Psychiatry. Reference: NICE Mental Health Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 49 of 53 Next → »