Psychiatry Board Exam Started: Jul 12, 2026 19:31 Page 53 of 53 Attempt #789 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 261 / 264 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 27-year-old man has withdrawal symptoms with craving with risk profile of poor treatment adherence. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Evidence-based psychotherapy pathway B. Appropriate first-line pharmacotherapy C. Safety planning with crisis intervention D. Integrated addiction treatment plan E. Family and social support engagement Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Integrated addiction treatment plan is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Psychiatry. Reference: CANMAT Guidelines; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 262 / 264 Not answered During ward handover: a 74-year-old man has recent self-harm with ongoing intent with risk profile of psychosocial stress. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Evidence-based psychotherapy pathway B. Appropriate first-line pharmacotherapy C. Safety planning with crisis intervention D. Early follow-up and monitoring E. Family and social support engagement Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Early follow-up and monitoring is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Psychiatry. Reference: NICE Mental Health Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 263 / 264 Not answered During morning rounds: a 71-year-old woman is evaluated for excessive uncontrollable worry in the context of poor treatment adherence. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Structured psychiatric interview B. Suicide risk assessment C. Substance use screening tools D. Medical cause exclusion workup E. Collateral history when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Structured psychiatric interview is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Psychiatry. Reference: CANMAT Guidelines; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 264 / 264 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 63-year-old man has excessive uncontrollable worry with risk profile of family psychiatric history. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Family and social support engagement B. Early follow-up and monitoring C. Safety planning with crisis intervention D. Evidence-based psychotherapy pathway E. Appropriate first-line pharmacotherapy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Early follow-up and monitoring is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Psychiatry. Reference: APA Practice Guidelines; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 53 of 53 Submit Exam