Dermatology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 16:16 Page 25 of 53 Attempt #2907 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 121 / 264 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 58-year-old man presents with pruritic flexural eczema. Relevant risk context includes family psoriasis history. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Atopic dermatitis flare B. Cutaneous melanoma suspicion C. Plaque psoriasis D. Drug eruption E. Chronic spontaneous urticaria Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of pruritic flexural eczema with risk factors such as family psoriasis history is most consistent with Chronic spontaneous urticaria. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Dermatology. Reference: EAACI Urticaria Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 122 / 264 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 78-year-old man has transient wheals with pruritus with risk profile of family psoriasis history. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Stepwise urticaria management B. Urgent oncologic dermatology referral for melanoma concern C. Antiviral therapy when indicated D. Systemic therapy referral for severe disease E. Trigger avoidance and skin barrier optimization Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Antiviral therapy when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Dermatology. Reference: EAACI Urticaria Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 123 / 264 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 61-year-old woman has transient wheals with pruritus with risk profile of new medication exposure. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Antiviral therapy when indicated B. Trigger avoidance and skin barrier optimization C. Stepwise urticaria management D. Systemic therapy referral for severe disease E. Urgent oncologic dermatology referral for melanoma concern Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Antiviral therapy when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Dermatology. Reference: NCCN Melanoma Guidance; Dermatology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 124 / 264 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 73-year-old man has pruritic flexural eczema with risk profile of atopy. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Topical anti-inflammatory regimen B. Stepwise urticaria management C. Systemic therapy referral for severe disease D. Urgent oncologic dermatology referral for melanoma concern E. Antiviral therapy when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Topical anti-inflammatory regimen is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Dermatology. Reference: NICE Dermatology Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 125 / 264 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 45-year-old woman is evaluated for transient wheals with pruritus in the context of family psoriasis history. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. KOH prep when fungal disease suspected B. Skin biopsy when indicated C. Severity scoring tools D. Clinical morphology-based diagnosis E. Dermoscopy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: KOH prep when fungal disease suspected is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Dermatology. Reference: NICE Dermatology Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 25 of 53 Next → »