Dermatology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 23:01 Page 28 of 53 Attempt #2993 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 136 / 264 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 42-year-old man presents with painful dermatomal vesicles. Relevant risk context includes atopy. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Chronic spontaneous urticaria B. Plaque psoriasis C. Cutaneous melanoma suspicion D. Drug eruption E. Herpes zoster Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of painful dermatomal vesicles with risk factors such as atopy is most consistent with Plaque psoriasis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Dermatology. Reference: AAD Clinical Guidelines; Dermatology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 137 / 264 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 69-year-old man is evaluated for transient wheals with pruritus in the context of atopy. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Dermoscopy B. Medication timeline review C. Severity scoring tools D. Skin biopsy when indicated E. KOH prep when fungal disease suspected Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Dermoscopy is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Dermatology. Reference: AAD Clinical Guidelines; Dermatology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 138 / 264 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 73-year-old man presents with transient wheals with pruritus. Relevant risk context includes high UV exposure. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Plaque psoriasis B. Chronic spontaneous urticaria C. Atopic dermatitis flare D. Cutaneous melanoma suspicion E. Drug eruption Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of transient wheals with pruritus with risk factors such as high UV exposure is most consistent with Plaque psoriasis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Dermatology. Reference: NCCN Melanoma Guidance; Dermatology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 139 / 264 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 79-year-old man has transient wheals with pruritus with risk profile of stress-related flares. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Systemic therapy referral for severe disease B. Trigger avoidance and skin barrier optimization C. Stepwise urticaria management D. Antiviral therapy when indicated E. Topical anti-inflammatory regimen Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Topical anti-inflammatory regimen is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Dermatology. Reference: NICE Dermatology Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 140 / 264 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 69-year-old woman has pruritic flexural eczema with risk profile of new medication exposure. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Antiviral therapy when indicated B. Systemic therapy referral for severe disease C. Urgent oncologic dermatology referral for melanoma concern D. Topical anti-inflammatory regimen E. Stepwise urticaria management Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Urgent oncologic dermatology referral for melanoma concern is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Dermatology. Reference: NICE Dermatology Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 28 of 53 Next → »