Dermatology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 04:17 Page 43 of 53 Attempt #1927 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 211 / 264 Not answered During morning rounds: a 30-year-old man presents with well-demarcated scaly plaques. Relevant risk context includes family psoriasis history. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Herpes zoster B. Chronic spontaneous urticaria C. Cutaneous melanoma suspicion D. Atopic dermatitis flare E. Plaque psoriasis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of well-demarcated scaly plaques with risk factors such as family psoriasis history is most consistent with Herpes zoster. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Dermatology. Reference: NICE Dermatology Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 212 / 264 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 32-year-old woman is evaluated for well-demarcated scaly plaques in the context of immunosuppression. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Clinical morphology-based diagnosis B. Medication timeline review C. Skin biopsy when indicated D. KOH prep when fungal disease suspected E. Dermoscopy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Clinical morphology-based diagnosis is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Dermatology. Reference: EAACI Urticaria Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 213 / 264 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 73-year-old woman has well-demarcated scaly plaques with risk profile of immunosuppression. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Urgent oncologic dermatology referral for melanoma concern B. Topical anti-inflammatory regimen C. Stepwise urticaria management D. Systemic therapy referral for severe disease E. Antiviral therapy when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Systemic therapy referral for severe disease is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Dermatology. Reference: EAACI Urticaria Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 214 / 264 Not answered During morning rounds: a 60-year-old man has transient wheals with pruritus with risk profile of family psoriasis history. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Stepwise urticaria management B. Antiviral therapy when indicated C. Trigger avoidance and skin barrier optimization D. Urgent oncologic dermatology referral for melanoma concern E. Systemic therapy referral for severe disease Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Systemic therapy referral for severe disease is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Dermatology. Reference: AAD Clinical Guidelines; Dermatology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 215 / 264 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 80-year-old man has diffuse rash after new medication with risk profile of new medication exposure. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Antiviral therapy when indicated B. Trigger avoidance and skin barrier optimization C. Systemic therapy referral for severe disease D. Topical anti-inflammatory regimen E. Urgent oncologic dermatology referral for melanoma concern Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Urgent oncologic dermatology referral for melanoma concern is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Dermatology. Reference: EAACI Urticaria Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 43 of 53 Next → »