Dermatology Board Exam Started: Jul 12, 2026 19:30 Page 53 of 53 Attempt #771 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 261 / 264 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 69-year-old woman presents with well-demarcated scaly plaques. Relevant risk context includes immunosuppression. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Atopic dermatitis flare B. Chronic spontaneous urticaria C. Plaque psoriasis D. Cutaneous melanoma suspicion E. Herpes zoster Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of well-demarcated scaly plaques with risk factors such as immunosuppression is most consistent with Herpes zoster. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Dermatology. Reference: NICE Dermatology Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 262 / 264 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 77-year-old man presents with diffuse rash after new medication. Relevant risk context includes new medication exposure. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Cutaneous melanoma suspicion B. Herpes zoster C. Plaque psoriasis D. Drug eruption E. Atopic dermatitis flare Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of diffuse rash after new medication with risk factors such as new medication exposure is most consistent with Herpes zoster. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Dermatology. Reference: EAACI Urticaria Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 263 / 264 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 24-year-old woman presents with pruritic flexural eczema. Relevant risk context includes family psoriasis history. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Drug eruption B. Atopic dermatitis flare C. Plaque psoriasis D. Chronic spontaneous urticaria E. Herpes zoster Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of pruritic flexural eczema with risk factors such as family psoriasis history is most consistent with Atopic dermatitis flare. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Dermatology. Reference: NCCN Melanoma Guidance; Dermatology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 264 / 264 Not answered During ward handover: a 53-year-old man has irregular pigmented lesion with risk profile of atopy. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Systemic therapy referral for severe disease B. Trigger avoidance and skin barrier optimization C. Urgent oncologic dermatology referral for melanoma concern D. Topical anti-inflammatory regimen E. Antiviral therapy when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Urgent oncologic dermatology referral for melanoma concern is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Dermatology. Reference: AAD Clinical Guidelines; Dermatology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 53 of 53 Submit Exam