Ophthalmology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 03:26 Page 11 of 51 Attempt #1816 Overall: 0 / 253 questions answered Question 51 / 253 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 74-year-old woman has painful red eye with halos with risk profile of diabetes. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Urgent vitreoretinal referral B. Appropriate antimicrobial therapy when infection is likely C. Vascular risk-directed evaluation for retinal ischemia D. Diabetes and blood pressure optimization E. Emergency IOP-lowering protocol Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Urgent vitreoretinal referral is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Ophthalmology. Reference: Royal College Ophthalmology Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 52 / 253 Not answered A 50-year-old diabetic with vision loss is found to have cotton-wool spots and hard exudates on fundoscopy. Stage of diabetic retinopathy: A. No diabetic retinopathy B. Mild nonproliferative C. Moderate nonproliferative D. Severe nonproliferative E. Proliferative Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The presence of hard exudates cotton-wool spots and dot-blot hemorrhages indicates moderate nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. Reference: American Academy of Ophthalmology Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 53 / 253 Not answered During morning rounds: a 45-year-old woman is evaluated for progressive visual blur in diabetes in the context of vascular risk profile. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Visual field testing B. Optical coherence tomography C. Fluorescein angiography when indicated D. Slit-lamp examination E. Urgent intraocular pressure measurement Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Slit-lamp examination is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Ophthalmology. Reference: Royal College Ophthalmology Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 54 / 253 Not answered A 60-year-old has intraocular pressure of 28 mmHg and optic nerve head cupping. Most appropriate first-line therapy: A. Observation and monitor B. Prostaglandin analogue eye drops C. Argon laser trabeculoplasty D. Trabeculectomy surgery E. Topical beta-blockers Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Prostaglandin analogues are the most effective first-line agents for reducing IOP and preventing glaucomatous progression. Reference: American Academy of Ophthalmology Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 55 / 253 Not answered A 75-year-old with central vision loss has drusen and retinal pigment epithelium changes. Stage of AMD: A. Early AMD B. Intermediate AMD C. Advanced AMD (dry or wet) D. No AMD E. Macular edema Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Presence of large drusen and/or pigmentary changes indicates intermediate AMD with risk of progression. Reference: American Academy of Ophthalmology Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 11 of 51 Next → »