Ophthalmology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 04:17 Page 12 of 51 Attempt #1933 Overall: 0 / 253 questions answered Question 56 / 253 Not answered During ward handover: a 38-year-old man presents with sudden painless monocular blindness. Relevant risk context includes contact lens use. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Central retinal artery occlusion B. Acute angle-closure glaucoma C. Anterior uveitis D. Retinal detachment E. Conjunctivitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of sudden painless monocular blindness with risk factors such as contact lens use is most consistent with Retinal detachment. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Ophthalmology. Reference: NICE Glaucoma Guideline; Ophthalmology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 57 / 253 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 62-year-old woman presents with painful red eye with halos. Relevant risk context includes older age. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Diabetic retinopathy progression B. Conjunctivitis C. Retinal detachment D. Acute angle-closure glaucoma E. Anterior uveitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of painful red eye with halos with risk factors such as older age is most consistent with Anterior uveitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Ophthalmology. Reference: Royal College Ophthalmology Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 58 / 253 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 79-year-old man has photophobia with ciliary flush with risk profile of vascular risk profile. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Appropriate antimicrobial therapy when infection is likely B. Targeted anti-inflammatory eye therapy when indicated C. Diabetes and blood pressure optimization D. Vascular risk-directed evaluation for retinal ischemia E. Emergency IOP-lowering protocol Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Targeted anti-inflammatory eye therapy when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Ophthalmology. Reference: NICE Glaucoma Guideline; Ophthalmology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 59 / 253 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 50-year-old man presents with photophobia with ciliary flush. Relevant risk context includes autoimmune disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Diabetic retinopathy progression B. Central retinal artery occlusion C. Anterior uveitis D. Retinal detachment E. Acute angle-closure glaucoma Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of photophobia with ciliary flush with risk factors such as autoimmune disease is most consistent with Central retinal artery occlusion. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Ophthalmology. Reference: Royal College Ophthalmology Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 60 / 253 Not answered During morning rounds: a 72-year-old man is evaluated for painful red eye with halos in the context of vascular risk profile. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Slit-lamp examination B. Urgent intraocular pressure measurement C. Visual field testing D. Optical coherence tomography E. Dilated fundus examination Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Dilated fundus examination is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Ophthalmology. Reference: AAO Preferred Practice Patterns Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 12 of 51 Next → »