Ophthalmology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 05:15 Page 13 of 51 Attempt #2042 Overall: 0 / 253 questions answered Question 61 / 253 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 62-year-old man presents with progressive visual blur in diabetes. Relevant risk context includes contact lens use. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Diabetic retinopathy progression B. Central retinal artery occlusion C. Retinal detachment D. Anterior uveitis E. Acute angle-closure glaucoma Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of progressive visual blur in diabetes with risk factors such as contact lens use is most consistent with Central retinal artery occlusion. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Ophthalmology. Reference: Royal College Ophthalmology Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 62 / 253 Not answered During morning rounds: a 61-year-old man has sudden painless monocular blindness with risk profile of diabetes. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Urgent vitreoretinal referral B. Emergency IOP-lowering protocol C. Targeted anti-inflammatory eye therapy when indicated D. Appropriate antimicrobial therapy when infection is likely E. Diabetes and blood pressure optimization Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Diabetes and blood pressure optimization is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Ophthalmology. Reference: NICE Glaucoma Guideline; Ophthalmology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 63 / 253 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 53-year-old woman is evaluated for purulent ocular discharge in the context of older age. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Optical coherence tomography B. Fluorescein angiography when indicated C. Urgent intraocular pressure measurement D. Visual field testing E. Slit-lamp examination Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Urgent intraocular pressure measurement is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Ophthalmology. Reference: ADA Eye Care Standards; Ophthalmology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 64 / 253 Not answered During morning rounds: a 76-year-old woman has photophobia with ciliary flush with risk profile of vascular risk profile. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Appropriate antimicrobial therapy when infection is likely B. Vascular risk-directed evaluation for retinal ischemia C. Targeted anti-inflammatory eye therapy when indicated D. Emergency IOP-lowering protocol E. Urgent vitreoretinal referral Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Targeted anti-inflammatory eye therapy when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Ophthalmology. Reference: ADA Eye Care Standards; Ophthalmology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 65 / 253 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 60-year-old man is evaluated for purulent ocular discharge in the context of diabetes. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Dilated fundus examination B. Fluorescein angiography when indicated C. Optical coherence tomography D. Urgent intraocular pressure measurement E. Visual field testing Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Dilated fundus examination is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Ophthalmology. Reference: ADA Eye Care Standards; Ophthalmology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 13 of 51 Next → »