Ophthalmology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 11:01 Page 19 of 51 Attempt #2646 Overall: 0 / 253 questions answered Question 91 / 253 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 56-year-old man has sudden curtain-like vision loss with risk profile of older age. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Appropriate antimicrobial therapy when infection is likely B. Emergency IOP-lowering protocol C. Urgent vitreoretinal referral D. Vascular risk-directed evaluation for retinal ischemia E. Targeted anti-inflammatory eye therapy when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Vascular risk-directed evaluation for retinal ischemia is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Ophthalmology. Reference: AAO Preferred Practice Patterns Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 92 / 253 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 76-year-old woman is evaluated for photophobia with ciliary flush in the context of myopia. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Urgent intraocular pressure measurement B. Dilated fundus examination C. Visual field testing D. Optical coherence tomography E. Fluorescein angiography when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Urgent intraocular pressure measurement is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Ophthalmology. Reference: AAO Preferred Practice Patterns Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 93 / 253 Not answered During morning rounds: a 36-year-old woman has sudden curtain-like vision loss with risk profile of older age. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Appropriate antimicrobial therapy when infection is likely B. Diabetes and blood pressure optimization C. Vascular risk-directed evaluation for retinal ischemia D. Targeted anti-inflammatory eye therapy when indicated E. Urgent vitreoretinal referral Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Urgent vitreoretinal referral is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Ophthalmology. Reference: NICE Glaucoma Guideline; Ophthalmology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 94 / 253 Not answered During ward handover: a 66-year-old man presents with painful red eye with halos. Relevant risk context includes diabetes. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Diabetic retinopathy progression B. Anterior uveitis C. Retinal detachment D. Acute angle-closure glaucoma E. Conjunctivitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of painful red eye with halos with risk factors such as diabetes is most consistent with Conjunctivitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Ophthalmology. Reference: AAO Preferred Practice Patterns Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 95 / 253 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 65-year-old man is evaluated for painful red eye with halos in the context of diabetes. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Slit-lamp examination B. Fluorescein angiography when indicated C. Urgent intraocular pressure measurement D. Visual field testing E. Optical coherence tomography Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Optical coherence tomography is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Ophthalmology. Reference: NICE Glaucoma Guideline; Ophthalmology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 19 of 51 Next → »