Ophthalmology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 13:35 Page 22 of 51 Attempt #2778 Overall: 0 / 253 questions answered Question 106 / 253 Not answered During ward handover: a 53-year-old woman is evaluated for photophobia with ciliary flush in the context of diabetes. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Fluorescein angiography when indicated B. Slit-lamp examination C. Urgent intraocular pressure measurement D. Visual field testing E. Optical coherence tomography Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Fluorescein angiography when indicated is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Ophthalmology. Reference: AAO Preferred Practice Patterns Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 107 / 253 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 78-year-old man has photophobia with ciliary flush with risk profile of myopia. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Emergency IOP-lowering protocol B. Targeted anti-inflammatory eye therapy when indicated C. Appropriate antimicrobial therapy when infection is likely D. Urgent vitreoretinal referral E. Diabetes and blood pressure optimization Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Emergency IOP-lowering protocol is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Ophthalmology. Reference: ADA Eye Care Standards; Ophthalmology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 108 / 253 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 26-year-old woman has sudden painless monocular blindness with risk profile of autoimmune disease. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Diabetes and blood pressure optimization B. Targeted anti-inflammatory eye therapy when indicated C. Vascular risk-directed evaluation for retinal ischemia D. Urgent vitreoretinal referral E. Emergency IOP-lowering protocol Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Targeted anti-inflammatory eye therapy when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Ophthalmology. Reference: AAO Preferred Practice Patterns Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 109 / 253 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 47-year-old man presents with progressive visual blur in diabetes. Relevant risk context includes diabetes. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Retinal detachment B. Anterior uveitis C. Conjunctivitis D. Acute angle-closure glaucoma E. Diabetic retinopathy progression Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of progressive visual blur in diabetes with risk factors such as diabetes is most consistent with Diabetic retinopathy progression. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Ophthalmology. Reference: NICE Glaucoma Guideline; Ophthalmology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 110 / 253 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 53-year-old man presents with sudden painless monocular blindness. Relevant risk context includes older age. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Central retinal artery occlusion B. Retinal detachment C. Acute angle-closure glaucoma D. Anterior uveitis E. Diabetic retinopathy progression Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of sudden painless monocular blindness with risk factors such as older age is most consistent with Central retinal artery occlusion. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Ophthalmology. Reference: Royal College Ophthalmology Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 22 of 51 Next → »