Ophthalmology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 16:11 Page 28 of 51 Attempt #2895 Overall: 0 / 253 questions answered Question 136 / 253 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 49-year-old woman presents with sudden curtain-like vision loss. Relevant risk context includes diabetes. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Anterior uveitis B. Conjunctivitis C. Retinal detachment D. Central retinal artery occlusion E. Acute angle-closure glaucoma Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of sudden curtain-like vision loss with risk factors such as diabetes is most consistent with Conjunctivitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Ophthalmology. Reference: ADA Eye Care Standards; Ophthalmology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 137 / 253 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 63-year-old man has painful red eye with halos with risk profile of older age. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Vascular risk-directed evaluation for retinal ischemia B. Targeted anti-inflammatory eye therapy when indicated C. Appropriate antimicrobial therapy when infection is likely D. Emergency IOP-lowering protocol E. Diabetes and blood pressure optimization Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Appropriate antimicrobial therapy when infection is likely is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Ophthalmology. Reference: AAO Preferred Practice Patterns Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 138 / 253 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 66-year-old woman is evaluated for progressive visual blur in diabetes in the context of vascular risk profile. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Urgent intraocular pressure measurement B. Slit-lamp examination C. Optical coherence tomography D. Fluorescein angiography when indicated E. Visual field testing Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Optical coherence tomography is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Ophthalmology. Reference: AAO Preferred Practice Patterns Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 139 / 253 Not answered During morning rounds: a 36-year-old woman has sudden painless monocular blindness with risk profile of myopia. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Targeted anti-inflammatory eye therapy when indicated B. Emergency IOP-lowering protocol C. Urgent vitreoretinal referral D. Diabetes and blood pressure optimization E. Appropriate antimicrobial therapy when infection is likely Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Diabetes and blood pressure optimization is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Ophthalmology. Reference: ADA Eye Care Standards; Ophthalmology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 140 / 253 Not answered During morning rounds: a 41-year-old man has painful red eye with halos with risk profile of myopia. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Targeted anti-inflammatory eye therapy when indicated B. Emergency IOP-lowering protocol C. Vascular risk-directed evaluation for retinal ischemia D. Appropriate antimicrobial therapy when infection is likely E. Diabetes and blood pressure optimization Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Diabetes and blood pressure optimization is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Ophthalmology. Reference: NICE Glaucoma Guideline; Ophthalmology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 28 of 51 Next → »