Ophthalmology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 11:00 Page 34 of 51 Attempt #2633 Overall: 0 / 253 questions answered Question 166 / 253 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 82-year-old man presents with progressive visual blur in diabetes. Relevant risk context includes diabetes. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Retinal detachment B. Anterior uveitis C. Central retinal artery occlusion D. Conjunctivitis E. Diabetic retinopathy progression Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of progressive visual blur in diabetes with risk factors such as diabetes is most consistent with Anterior uveitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Ophthalmology. Reference: ADA Eye Care Standards; Ophthalmology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 167 / 253 Not answered During ward handover: a 67-year-old man is evaluated for progressive visual blur in diabetes in the context of vascular risk profile. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Optical coherence tomography B. Visual field testing C. Slit-lamp examination D. Urgent intraocular pressure measurement E. Fluorescein angiography when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Optical coherence tomography is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Ophthalmology. Reference: Royal College Ophthalmology Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 168 / 253 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 58-year-old woman has sudden curtain-like vision loss with risk profile of diabetes. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Urgent vitreoretinal referral B. Vascular risk-directed evaluation for retinal ischemia C. Diabetes and blood pressure optimization D. Emergency IOP-lowering protocol E. Appropriate antimicrobial therapy when infection is likely Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Emergency IOP-lowering protocol is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Ophthalmology. Reference: NICE Glaucoma Guideline; Ophthalmology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 169 / 253 Not answered During morning rounds: a 51-year-old woman has purulent ocular discharge with risk profile of contact lens use. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Vascular risk-directed evaluation for retinal ischemia B. Diabetes and blood pressure optimization C. Targeted anti-inflammatory eye therapy when indicated D. Urgent vitreoretinal referral E. Appropriate antimicrobial therapy when infection is likely Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Appropriate antimicrobial therapy when infection is likely is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Ophthalmology. Reference: NICE Glaucoma Guideline; Ophthalmology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 170 / 253 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 31-year-old man presents with sudden painless monocular blindness. Relevant risk context includes older age. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute angle-closure glaucoma B. Diabetic retinopathy progression C. Central retinal artery occlusion D. Anterior uveitis E. Retinal detachment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of sudden painless monocular blindness with risk factors such as older age is most consistent with Anterior uveitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Ophthalmology. Reference: NICE Glaucoma Guideline; Ophthalmology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 34 of 51 Next → »