Ophthalmology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 06:10 Page 39 of 51 Attempt #2128 Overall: 0 / 253 questions answered Question 191 / 253 Not answered During ward handover: a 71-year-old woman presents with photophobia with ciliary flush. Relevant risk context includes vascular risk profile. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Retinal detachment B. Anterior uveitis C. Conjunctivitis D. Central retinal artery occlusion E. Acute angle-closure glaucoma Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of photophobia with ciliary flush with risk factors such as vascular risk profile is most consistent with Retinal detachment. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Ophthalmology. Reference: ADA Eye Care Standards; Ophthalmology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 192 / 253 Not answered During ward handover: a 58-year-old man is evaluated for painful red eye with halos in the context of older age. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Urgent intraocular pressure measurement B. Fluorescein angiography when indicated C. Slit-lamp examination D. Optical coherence tomography E. Visual field testing Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Urgent intraocular pressure measurement is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Ophthalmology. Reference: ADA Eye Care Standards; Ophthalmology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 193 / 253 Not answered During morning rounds: a 78-year-old woman has painful red eye with halos with risk profile of myopia. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Diabetes and blood pressure optimization B. Targeted anti-inflammatory eye therapy when indicated C. Urgent vitreoretinal referral D. Emergency IOP-lowering protocol E. Appropriate antimicrobial therapy when infection is likely Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Targeted anti-inflammatory eye therapy when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Ophthalmology. Reference: ADA Eye Care Standards; Ophthalmology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 194 / 253 Not answered During morning rounds: a 64-year-old woman is evaluated for progressive visual blur in diabetes in the context of myopia. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Optical coherence tomography B. Urgent intraocular pressure measurement C. Visual field testing D. Fluorescein angiography when indicated E. Slit-lamp examination Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Fluorescein angiography when indicated is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Ophthalmology. Reference: Royal College Ophthalmology Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 195 / 253 Not answered During ward handover: a 37-year-old man presents with sudden curtain-like vision loss. Relevant risk context includes older age. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Central retinal artery occlusion B. Anterior uveitis C. Acute angle-closure glaucoma D. Diabetic retinopathy progression E. Retinal detachment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of sudden curtain-like vision loss with risk factors such as older age is most consistent with Acute angle-closure glaucoma. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Ophthalmology. Reference: NICE Glaucoma Guideline; Ophthalmology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 39 of 51 Next → »