ENT Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 08:12 Page 16 of 51 Attempt #2362 Overall: 0 / 253 questions answered Question 76 / 253 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 35-year-old man presents with vertigo with fluctuating hearing loss. Relevant risk context includes immunosuppression. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Laryngeal malignancy concern B. Chronic sinusitis C. Meniere disease D. Peritonsillar abscess E. Acute otitis media Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of vertigo with fluctuating hearing loss with risk factors such as immunosuppression is most consistent with Acute otitis media. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for ENT. Reference: NICE ENT Guidance; ENT topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 77 / 253 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 79-year-old man is evaluated for muffled voice with trismus in the context of water exposure. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Otoscopic examination B. Vestibular assessment C. Airway risk assessment D. Sinus imaging when indicated E. Flexible nasolaryngoscopy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Airway risk assessment is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in ENT. Reference: ESPO Recommendations; ENT topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 78 / 253 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 69-year-old man presents with nasal obstruction with purulent discharge. Relevant risk context includes smoking. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Chronic sinusitis B. Peritonsillar abscess C. Otitis externa D. Laryngeal malignancy concern E. Acute otitis media Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of nasal obstruction with purulent discharge with risk factors such as smoking is most consistent with Peritonsillar abscess. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for ENT. Reference: NICE ENT Guidance; ENT topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 79 / 253 Not answered During ward handover: a 54-year-old man has nasal obstruction with purulent discharge with risk profile of water exposure. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Drainage strategy for abscess when indicated B. Topical otic therapy for external canal infection C. Urgent cancer exclusion referral when red flags are present D. Vestibular symptom-directed treatment E. Guideline-concordant antimicrobial therapy when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Guideline-concordant antimicrobial therapy when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in ENT. Reference: AAO-HNS Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 80 / 253 Not answered During ward handover: a 50-year-old man has muffled voice with trismus with risk profile of recent URI. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Drainage strategy for abscess when indicated B. Urgent cancer exclusion referral when red flags are present C. Topical otic therapy for external canal infection D. Intranasal corticosteroid and saline program E. Guideline-concordant antimicrobial therapy when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Intranasal corticosteroid and saline program is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in ENT. Reference: ESPO Recommendations; ENT topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 16 of 51 Next → »