Orthopedics Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 06:54 Page 15 of 55 Attempt #2216 Overall: 0 / 275 questions answered Question 71 / 275 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 38-year-old woman presents with chronic knee crepitus with pain. Relevant risk context includes obesity. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Osteoarthritis B. Compartment syndrome C. Femoral neck fracture D. Prosthetic joint infection E. Meniscal injury Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of chronic knee crepitus with pain with risk factors such as obesity is most consistent with Femoral neck fracture. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Orthopedics. Reference: BOA Standards; Orthopedics topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 72 / 275 Not answered A 65-year-old with knee osteoarthritis has pain affecting function. Most appropriate initial management: A. Total knee replacement B. NSAIDs and weight management C. Intra-articular corticosteroid injection D. Physical therapy alone E. Arthroscopic surgery Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Conservative management with NSAIDs physical therapy and weight reduction is first-line for symptomatic OA. Reference: American Academy of Orthopedic Surgeons Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 73 / 275 Not answered A 55-year-old with chronic shoulder pain has imaging confirming a full-thickness rotator cuff tear. Most appropriate management: A. Immobilization only B. Conservative therapy with physical therapy and NSAIDs C. Rotator cuff repair surgery D. Corticosteroid injection only E. Observation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Conservative management is first-line for most rotator cuff tears; surgery is considered if symptoms persist after 3-6 months. Reference: American Academy of Orthopedic Surgeons Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 74 / 275 Not answered During ward handover: a 52-year-old woman presents with shortened externally rotated leg after fall. Relevant risk context includes osteoporosis. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Anterior cruciate ligament tear B. Meniscal injury C. Prosthetic joint infection D. Compartment syndrome E. Femoral neck fracture Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of shortened externally rotated leg after fall with risk factors such as osteoporosis is most consistent with Prosthetic joint infection. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Orthopedics. Reference: AAOS Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 75 / 275 Not answered A 25-year-old athlete with acute knee injury has positive Lachman test and MRI confirming ACL tear. Most appropriate management: A. Immediate surgical reconstruction B. Conservative management with bracing and physical therapy C. Observation and follow-up D. Corticosteroid injection E. Immobilization for 6 weeks Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: ACL reconstruction is recommended for active individuals to restore knee stability and prevent early osteoarthritis. Reference: American Academy of Orthopedic Surgeons Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 15 of 55 Next → »