Pediatrics Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 11:01 Page 19 of 69 Attempt #2643 Overall: 0 / 344 questions answered Question 91 / 344 Not answered A 2-year-old has barking cough and stridor only when agitated, oxygen saturation 98%. What is the best treatment? A. Single dose dexamethasone B. Immediate intubation for all croup C. Antibiotics only D. No treatment ever E. Warfarin Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: [Pediatrics] Mild croup benefits from corticosteroid; nebulized epinephrine is for moderate/severe distress or stridor at rest. Reference: Canadian Paediatric Society Croup Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 92 / 344 Not answered A 6-month-old has fever without source and is not fully immunized. What should guide management? A. Reassurance only without vitals B. Age, appearance, vaccination status, urinalysis, and sepsis risk assessment C. CT brain for all fever D. Antihistamine only E. Delay care until rash appears Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: [Pediatrics] Fever in infants requires risk stratification by age, appearance, immunization, and targeted testing such as urine evaluation. Reference: AAP Febrile Infant Guideline; NICE Fever in Under 5s. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 93 / 344 Not answered A 5-year-old has polyuria, weight loss, vomiting, glucose 26 mmol/L, ketones, and acidosis. What is the diagnosis? A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Asthma C. Diabetic ketoacidosis D. Celiac disease E. Appendicitis only Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: [Pediatrics] Hyperglycemia, ketosis, and acidosis in a child diagnose DKA. Reference: ISPAD Clinical Practice Consensus Guidelines. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 94 / 344 Not answered A 3-year-old has perianal itching at night. What is the usual treatment? A. IV ceftriaxone for all B. Topical steroid alone C. No household advice D. Mebendazole for child and household hygiene measures E. Insulin Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: [Pediatrics] Enterobiasis causes nocturnal perianal itch; mebendazole/albendazole plus hygiene and household management reduces reinfection. Reference: CDC Pinworm Clinical Overview. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 95 / 344 Not answered A 7-year-old has nephrotic-range proteinuria, edema, hypoalbuminemia, and normal complement. What is the most common cause? A. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis B. IgA nephropathy always C. Renal stone D. Wilms tumor E. Minimal change disease Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: [Pediatrics] Minimal change disease is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children. Reference: KDIGO Glomerular Diseases Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 19 of 69 Next → »