Pediatrics Board Exam Started: Jul 12, 2026 19:27 Page 2 of 69 Attempt #734 Overall: 0 / 344 questions answered Question 6 / 344 Not answered During morning rounds: A 2-year-old has barking cough and stridor only when agitated, oxygen saturation 98%. What is the best treatment? A. Immediate intubation for all croup B. Single dose dexamethasone C. Antibiotics only D. No treatment ever E. Warfarin Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: [Pediatrics] Mild croup benefits from corticosteroid; nebulized epinephrine is for moderate/severe distress or stridor at rest. Reference: Canadian Paediatric Society Croup Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 7 / 344 Not answered During morning rounds: A 6-month-old has fever without source and is not fully immunized. What should guide management? A. Reassurance only without vitals B. CT brain for all fever C. Age, appearance, vaccination status, urinalysis, and sepsis risk assessment D. Antihistamine only E. Delay care until rash appears Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: [Pediatrics] Fever in infants requires risk stratification by age, appearance, immunization, and targeted testing such as urine evaluation. Reference: AAP Febrile Infant Guideline; NICE Fever in Under 5s. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 8 / 344 Not answered During morning rounds: A 5-year-old has polyuria, weight loss, vomiting, glucose 26 mmol/L, ketones, and acidosis. What is the diagnosis? A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Asthma C. Celiac disease D. Diabetic ketoacidosis E. Appendicitis only Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: [Pediatrics] Hyperglycemia, ketosis, and acidosis in a child diagnose DKA. Reference: ISPAD Clinical Practice Consensus Guidelines. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 9 / 344 Not answered During morning rounds: A 3-year-old has perianal itching at night. What is the usual treatment? A. IV ceftriaxone for all B. Topical steroid alone C. No household advice D. Insulin E. Mebendazole for child and household hygiene measures Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: [Pediatrics] Enterobiasis causes nocturnal perianal itch; mebendazole/albendazole plus hygiene and household management reduces reinfection. Reference: CDC Pinworm Clinical Overview. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 10 / 344 Not answered During morning rounds: A 7-year-old has nephrotic-range proteinuria, edema, hypoalbuminemia, and normal complement. What is the most common cause? A. Minimal change disease B. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis C. IgA nephropathy always D. Renal stone E. Wilms tumor Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: [Pediatrics] Minimal change disease is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children. Reference: KDIGO Glomerular Diseases Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 2 of 69 Next → »