Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 05:16 Page 13 of 59 Attempt #2050 Overall: 0 / 295 questions answered Question 61 / 295 Not answered A patient has RUQ pain, fever, Murphy sign, and gallstones. What is the diagnosis? A. Acute pancreatitis only B. Acute calculous cholecystitis C. Appendicitis D. Diverticulitis E. Peptic ulcer without gallbladder disease Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: [Surgery] Fever, RUQ tenderness/Murphy sign, and gallstones support acute cholecystitis. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Acute Cholecystitis. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 62 / 295 Not answered A patient has severe abdominal pain, rigid abdomen, and free air under diaphragm. What is the likely diagnosis? A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Constipation only C. Perforated viscus D. Gastroenteritis only E. Renal colic always Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: [Surgery] Peritonitis with pneumoperitoneum suggests perforated hollow viscus requiring urgent surgical management. Reference: WSES Guidelines for Perforated Peptic Ulcer. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 63 / 295 Not answered A 65-year-old has painless jaundice, weight loss, and palpable gallbladder. What malignancy is concerning? A. Appendiceal abscess B. Benign hemorrhoids C. Achalasia D. Pancreatic head cancer E. Inguinal hernia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: [Surgery] Painless obstructive jaundice with weight loss suggests pancreaticobiliary malignancy. Reference: NCCN Pancreatic Adenocarcinoma Guidelines. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 64 / 295 Not answered A groin lump above and medial to the pubic tubercle with cough impulse is most likely what? A. Femoral hernia B. Hydrocele C. Varicocele D. Lipoma always E. Inguinal hernia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: [Surgery] An inguinal hernia is classically above and medial to the pubic tubercle; femoral is below and lateral. Reference: European Hernia Society Groin Hernia Guidelines. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 65 / 295 Not answered During an emergency department assessment: A 22-year-old has migratory periumbilical pain now in right iliac fossa with fever and rebound tenderness. What is the likely diagnosis? A. Acute appendicitis B. Renal failure C. Pneumonia D. Migraine E. Gout Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: [Surgery] Migratory pain to the right iliac fossa with peritoneal signs suggests acute appendicitis. Reference: World Society of Emergency Surgery Jerusalem Appendicitis Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 13 of 59 Next → »