Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 13:36 Page 22 of 59 Attempt #2779 Overall: 0 / 295 questions answered Question 106 / 295 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 29-year-old woman has sudden severe epigastric pain with peritonism with risk profile of immunosuppression. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Early sepsis management in surgical infection B. Source control with appropriate antibiotics C. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction D. Postoperative complication surveillance E. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Early sepsis management in surgical infection is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 107 / 295 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 58-year-old man has sudden severe epigastric pain with peritonism with risk profile of NSAID use. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Early sepsis management in surgical infection B. Timely operative consultation C. Postoperative complication surveillance D. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction E. Source control with appropriate antibiotics Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Timely operative consultation is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 108 / 295 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 80-year-old man is evaluated for right lower quadrant pain migrating from periumbilical area in the context of immunosuppression. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers B. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen C. Abdominal ultrasound D. Lactate and perfusion assessment E. Intraoperative culture when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Lactate and perfusion assessment is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 109 / 295 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 79-year-old man presents with wound erythema with purulent drainage. Relevant risk context includes immunosuppression. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Perforated peptic ulcer B. Acute calculous cholecystitis C. Small bowel obstruction D. Acute appendicitis E. Postoperative surgical site infection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of wound erythema with purulent drainage with risk factors such as immunosuppression is most consistent with Perforated peptic ulcer. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: NICE Surgical Site Infection Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 110 / 295 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 38-year-old woman has abdominal distension with vomiting with risk profile of diabetes. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Postoperative complication surveillance B. Early sepsis management in surgical infection C. Source control with appropriate antibiotics D. Timely operative consultation E. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Timely operative consultation is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 22 of 59 Next → »