Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 14:21 Page 23 of 59 Attempt #2824 Overall: 0 / 295 questions answered Question 111 / 295 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 39-year-old man presents with abdominal distension with vomiting. Relevant risk context includes immunosuppression. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Small bowel obstruction B. Acute mesenteric ischemia C. Acute calculous cholecystitis D. Perforated peptic ulcer E. Postoperative surgical site infection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of abdominal distension with vomiting with risk factors such as immunosuppression is most consistent with Perforated peptic ulcer. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 112 / 295 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 57-year-old man has sudden severe epigastric pain with peritonism with risk profile of prior abdominal surgery. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Early sepsis management in surgical infection B. Timely operative consultation C. Postoperative complication surveillance D. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction E. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Early sepsis management in surgical infection is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 113 / 295 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 79-year-old man is evaluated for sudden severe epigastric pain with peritonism in the context of immunosuppression. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Lactate and perfusion assessment B. Intraoperative culture when indicated C. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen D. Erect chest imaging for free air E. Abdominal ultrasound Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Abdominal ultrasound is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 114 / 295 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 61-year-old woman presents with sudden severe epigastric pain with peritonism. Relevant risk context includes prior abdominal surgery. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute appendicitis B. Postoperative surgical site infection C. Acute calculous cholecystitis D. Perforated peptic ulcer E. Acute mesenteric ischemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of sudden severe epigastric pain with peritonism with risk factors such as prior abdominal surgery is most consistent with Acute appendicitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 115 / 295 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 38-year-old woman is evaluated for wound erythema with purulent drainage in the context of immunosuppression. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen B. Abdominal ultrasound C. Intraoperative culture when indicated D. Erect chest imaging for free air E. Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 23 of 59 Next → »