Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 15:20 Page 24 of 59 Attempt #2877 Overall: 0 / 295 questions answered Question 116 / 295 Not answered During ward handover: a 49-year-old man is evaluated for right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign in the context of diabetes. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Abdominal ultrasound B. Erect chest imaging for free air C. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen D. Intraoperative culture when indicated E. Lactate and perfusion assessment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Intraoperative culture when indicated is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: NICE Surgical Site Infection Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 117 / 295 Not answered During ward handover: a 30-year-old woman is evaluated for wound erythema with purulent drainage in the context of vascular disease. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Intraoperative culture when indicated B. Lactate and perfusion assessment C. Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers D. Abdominal ultrasound E. Erect chest imaging for free air Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Intraoperative culture when indicated is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 118 / 295 Not answered During ward handover: a 58-year-old woman has pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis with risk profile of gallstones. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction B. Timely operative consultation C. Source control with appropriate antibiotics D. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization E. Early sepsis management in surgical infection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Early sepsis management in surgical infection is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: NICE Surgical Site Infection Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 119 / 295 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 63-year-old man is evaluated for pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis in the context of prior abdominal surgery. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers B. Lactate and perfusion assessment C. Intraoperative culture when indicated D. Erect chest imaging for free air E. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Erect chest imaging for free air is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: NICE Surgical Site Infection Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 120 / 295 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 39-year-old man has abdominal distension with vomiting with risk profile of vascular disease. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction B. Postoperative complication surveillance C. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization D. Timely operative consultation E. Source control with appropriate antibiotics Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: NICE Surgical Site Infection Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 24 of 59 Next → »