Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 16:21 Page 25 of 59 Attempt #2917 Overall: 0 / 295 questions answered Question 121 / 295 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 31-year-old woman presents with pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis. Relevant risk context includes vascular disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Postoperative surgical site infection B. Perforated peptic ulcer C. Acute appendicitis D. Small bowel obstruction E. Acute mesenteric ischemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis with risk factors such as vascular disease is most consistent with Postoperative surgical site infection. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 122 / 295 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 44-year-old woman has right lower quadrant pain migrating from periumbilical area with risk profile of vascular disease. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization B. Postoperative complication surveillance C. Source control with appropriate antibiotics D. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction E. Timely operative consultation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Timely operative consultation is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: NICE Surgical Site Infection Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 123 / 295 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 68-year-old woman presents with right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign. Relevant risk context includes NSAID use. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Perforated peptic ulcer B. Acute appendicitis C. Small bowel obstruction D. Acute calculous cholecystitis E. Postoperative surgical site infection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign with risk factors such as NSAID use is most consistent with Acute appendicitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: NICE Surgical Site Infection Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 124 / 295 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 25-year-old woman presents with sudden severe epigastric pain with peritonism. Relevant risk context includes immunosuppression. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Small bowel obstruction B. Acute appendicitis C. Acute mesenteric ischemia D. Perforated peptic ulcer E. Acute calculous cholecystitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of sudden severe epigastric pain with peritonism with risk factors such as immunosuppression is most consistent with Acute appendicitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 125 / 295 Not answered During morning rounds: a 62-year-old woman presents with abdominal distension with vomiting. Relevant risk context includes NSAID use. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute calculous cholecystitis B. Small bowel obstruction C. Perforated peptic ulcer D. Postoperative surgical site infection E. Acute mesenteric ischemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of abdominal distension with vomiting with risk factors such as NSAID use is most consistent with Perforated peptic ulcer. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 25 of 59 Next → »