Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 22:59 Page 27 of 59 Attempt #2986 Overall: 0 / 295 questions answered Question 131 / 295 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 39-year-old man has sudden severe epigastric pain with peritonism with risk profile of diabetes. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Early sepsis management in surgical infection B. Timely operative consultation C. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction D. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization E. Postoperative complication surveillance Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Postoperative complication surveillance is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: NICE Surgical Site Infection Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 132 / 295 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 70-year-old woman is evaluated for pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis in the context of immunosuppression. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Intraoperative culture when indicated B. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen C. Lactate and perfusion assessment D. Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers E. Abdominal ultrasound Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 133 / 295 Not answered During morning rounds: a 41-year-old man presents with right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign. Relevant risk context includes prior abdominal surgery. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute calculous cholecystitis B. Acute mesenteric ischemia C. Perforated peptic ulcer D. Acute appendicitis E. Small bowel obstruction Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign with risk factors such as prior abdominal surgery is most consistent with Perforated peptic ulcer. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 134 / 295 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 52-year-old woman is evaluated for wound erythema with purulent drainage in the context of NSAID use. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen B. Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers C. Abdominal ultrasound D. Intraoperative culture when indicated E. Lactate and perfusion assessment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Lactate and perfusion assessment is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: NICE Surgical Site Infection Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 135 / 295 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 79-year-old man has right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign with risk profile of immunosuppression. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization B. Postoperative complication surveillance C. Timely operative consultation D. Early sepsis management in surgical infection E. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Early sepsis management in surgical infection is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: NICE Surgical Site Infection Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 27 of 59 Next → »