Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 00:32 Page 28 of 59 Attempt #3012 Overall: 0 / 295 questions answered Question 136 / 295 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 64-year-old woman is evaluated for wound erythema with purulent drainage in the context of diabetes. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Lactate and perfusion assessment B. Erect chest imaging for free air C. Intraoperative culture when indicated D. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen E. Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: NICE Surgical Site Infection Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 137 / 295 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 42-year-old man presents with right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign. Relevant risk context includes NSAID use. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute calculous cholecystitis B. Postoperative surgical site infection C. Perforated peptic ulcer D. Small bowel obstruction E. Acute appendicitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign with risk factors such as NSAID use is most consistent with Small bowel obstruction. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 138 / 295 Not answered During morning rounds: a 74-year-old man presents with pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis. Relevant risk context includes vascular disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute appendicitis B. Small bowel obstruction C. Acute calculous cholecystitis D. Acute mesenteric ischemia E. Perforated peptic ulcer Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis with risk factors such as vascular disease is most consistent with Perforated peptic ulcer. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 139 / 295 Not answered During morning rounds: a 37-year-old man presents with abdominal distension with vomiting. Relevant risk context includes diabetes. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute mesenteric ischemia B. Perforated peptic ulcer C. Acute calculous cholecystitis D. Postoperative surgical site infection E. Small bowel obstruction Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of abdominal distension with vomiting with risk factors such as diabetes is most consistent with Perforated peptic ulcer. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: NICE Surgical Site Infection Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 140 / 295 Not answered During ward handover: a 74-year-old man is evaluated for abdominal distension with vomiting in the context of diabetes. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers B. Abdominal ultrasound C. Intraoperative culture when indicated D. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen E. Erect chest imaging for free air Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Intraoperative culture when indicated is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 28 of 59 Next → »